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(5331) Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best describes Piaget's preoperational stage? A) Logical thinking about concrete events B) Abstract reasoning C) Symbolic play and egocentrism D) Mastery of conservation tasks Answer: C Explanation: The preoperational stage (ages 2-7) is marked by symbolic play, egocentrism, and a lack of understanding of conservation. Question 2. At what age do typically developing children produce their first true word? A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 18 months D) 24 months Answer: B Explanation: Most children produce their first true word around 12 months of age. Question 3. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for motor innervation of the tongue? A) Vagus (X) B) Trigeminal (V) C) Hypoglossal (XII) D) Facial (VII) Answer: C Explanation: The hypoglossal nerve (XII) controls the motor movements of the tongue. Question 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of Broca’s aphasia? A) Fluent but meaningless speech B) Nonfluent, effortful speech with relatively good comprehension C) Poor comprehension and poor repetition D) Rapid, pressured speech Answer: B Explanation: Broca’s aphasia features nonfluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension. Question 5. Which structure is the primary site for phonation? A) Nasal cavity B) Larynx C) Oral cavity D) Pharynx Answer: B Explanation: The larynx houses the vocal folds, which are responsible for phonation.
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Question 6. Which theory of language development emphasizes innate biological mechanisms? A) Behaviorist B) Social interactionist C) Nativist D) Information processing Answer: C Explanation: The nativist theory (e.g., Chomsky) proposes that humans are born with an innate language capacity. Question 7. Which of the following best represents an example of a pragmatic language skill? A) Naming objects B) Using correct verb tense C) Taking turns in conversation D) Producing /s/ accurately Answer: C Explanation: Pragmatics involves the social use of language, such as turn-taking. Question 8. What is the most common cause of acquired aphasia in adults? A) Dementia B) Traumatic brain injury C) Stroke D) Brain tumor Answer: C Explanation: Stroke is the leading cause of acquired aphasia in adults. Question 9. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of childhood apraxia of speech? A) Inconsistent errors B) Groping movements C) Language comprehension deficits D) Impaired prosody Answer: C Explanation: Childhood apraxia of speech primarily affects speech motor planning, not language comprehension. Question 10. Which cranial nerve provides sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? A) Vagus (X) B) Glossopharyngeal (IX) C) Trigeminal (V) D) Facial (VII)
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C) Initiates swallowing D) Supports the base of the tongue Answer: B Explanation: The velum (soft palate) elevates to close the nasal cavity during production of most speech sounds. Question 16. A child who substitutes /w/ for /r/ (e.g., “wabbit” for “rabbit”) is exhibiting which phonological process? A) Final consonant deletion B) Gliding C) Stopping D) Fronting Answer: B Explanation: Gliding is the substitution of a glide (/w/, /j/) for a liquid (/r/, /l/). Question 17. Which syndrome is commonly associated with cleft palate and speech/language problems? A) Down syndrome B) Fragile X syndrome C) Pierre Robin sequence D) Prader-Willi syndrome Answer: C Explanation: Pierre Robin sequence often involves cleft palate and associated feeding/speech problems. Question 18. Which of the following is a secondary prevention strategy for communication disorders? A) Immunization B) Early screening for hearing loss C) Educating the public about noise-induced hearing loss D) Providing AAC devices Answer: B Explanation: Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention, such as screening. Question 19. Which cranial nerves are primarily involved in swallowing? A) V, VII, IX, X, XII B) III, IV, VI C) II, V, VII D) VIII, IX, X Answer: A
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Explanation: Cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), and XII (hypoglossal) are key for swallowing. Question 20. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of stuttering? A) Repetitions B) Prolongations C) Voice hoarseness D) Blocks Answer: C Explanation: Voice hoarseness is not a core feature of stuttering; repetitions, prolongations, and blocks are. Question 21. The term “code-switching” refers to: A) Mixing up speech sounds B) Alternating between languages or dialects based on context C) Using nonverbal gestures D) Repeating words or phrases Answer: B Explanation: Code-switching is changing languages or dialects depending on social context. Question 22. Which part of the brain is most responsible for motor planning of speech? A) Broca’s area B) Wernicke’s area C) Occipital lobe D) Hippocampus Answer: A Explanation: Broca’s area is essential for speech motor planning and production. Question 23. What is the hallmark feature of dysarthria? A) Inconsistent speech errors B) Impaired muscle control causing consistent errors C) Loss of word meaning D) Impaired language comprehension Answer: B Explanation: Dysarthria involves consistent speech errors due to muscle weakness or incoordination. Question 24. What is the major difference between receptive and expressive language disorders? A) Receptive affects speech, expressive affects writing B) Receptive involves understanding, expressive involves producing language C) Receptive occurs only in adults
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Question 29. What is the primary focus of tertiary prevention in communication disorders? A) Preventing disorders before they occur B) Early identification C) Reducing the impact of an existing disorder D) Screening for risk factors Answer: C Explanation: Tertiary prevention aims to reduce the impact of already established disorders. Question 30. Which of the following is most appropriate when documenting a SOAP note? A) Use only subjective language B) Include objective, measurable data C) Avoid any mention of patient progress D) Focus on patient’s emotional state only Answer: B Explanation: Objective data is essential in SOAP notes for measurable assessment and progress monitoring. Question 31. Which of the following is an example of a dialectal difference, not a disorder? A) Omitting final consonants in all contexts B) Using double negatives in African American English C) Consistent nasal emission D) Monotone voice Answer: B Explanation: Double negatives are a feature of some dialects and do not indicate a disorder. Question 32. Which of the following best describes cluttering? A) Rapid, irregular speech with frequent breaks in fluency B) Slow, monotonous speech C) Excessive use of fillers D) Repetitive syllable prolongation Answer: A Explanation: Cluttering is characterized by rapid, irregular speech and breakdowns in fluency. Question 33. Which of the following is a key feature of phonological disorders? A) Structural abnormalities only B) Difficulty producing certain speech sounds due to faulty sound patterns C) Neurological impairment D) Disfluencies Answer: B Explanation: Phonological disorders involve difficulties with sound patterns and rules.
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Question 34. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT directly involved in speech production? A) Trigeminal (V) B) Vestibulocochlear (VIII) C) Facial (VII) D) Hypoglossal (XII) Answer: B Explanation: The vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) is responsible for hearing and balance, not speech production. Question 35. The process of distinguishing between a communication disorder and a difference is especially important for: A) English-only speakers B) Monolingual assessment C) Bilingual and culturally diverse clients D) Adults with acquired disorders Answer: C Explanation: Differentiating between disorder and difference is critical in bilingual/culturally diverse populations. Question 36. What does the “subjective” component of a SOAP note include? A) Measurable assessment data B) The client's report or caregiver observation C) The diagnosis D) The treatment plan Answer: B Explanation: The subjective section includes information reported by the client or caregivers. Question 37. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention for hearing loss? A) Avoiding loud noise B) Early detection of otitis media C) Use of cochlear implants D) Sign language instruction Answer: B Explanation: Early detection and treatment of otitis media can prevent progression to hearing loss. Question 38. Which muscle is NOT involved in velopharyngeal closure? A) Levator veli palatini B) Tensor veli palatini C) Palatopharyngeus D) Masseter
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C) Share client information with all staff D) Refer all clients to physicians Answer: B Explanation: Confidentiality of client information is a fundamental ethical principle. Question 44. Which speech sound is typically among the first to be mastered by children? A) /s/ B) /t/ C) /r/ D) /ʃ/ Answer: B Explanation: The /t/ sound is an early-developing consonant, usually mastered by age 3. Question 45. Which of the following is characteristic of Wernicke’s aphasia? A) Nonfluent speech with good comprehension B) Fluent speech with poor comprehension C) Monotone speech D) Impaired motor planning Answer: B Explanation: Wernicke’s aphasia presents as fluent, often nonsensical speech with poor comprehension. Question 46. Which of the following is considered a receptive language skill? A) Naming pictures B) Understanding directions C) Using past tense verbs D) Producing grammatically correct sentences Answer: B Explanation: Receptive language involves understanding spoken or written messages. Question 47. Which brain structure is primarily responsible for balance and coordination, impacting speech motor control? A) Cerebellum B) Hippocampus C) Occipital lobe D) Amygdala Answer: A Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates movement, including the fine motor control needed for speech.
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Question 48. Which of the following best describes “speech sound disorder”? A) Difficulty with language comprehension B) Difficulty producing sounds correctly due to articulation or phonological issues C) Only stuttering D) Loss of language after brain injury Answer: B Explanation: Speech sound disorders involve articulation and phonological difficulties. Question 49. Which of the following is a feature of pragmatic language impairment? A) Poor sentence structure B) Difficulty following conversational rules C) Incorrect sound production D) Impaired hearing sensitivity Answer: B Explanation: Pragmatic language impairment affects social aspects of communication, like turn- taking. Question 50. The “objective” section of a SOAP note should include: A) Client’s feelings about therapy B) Therapist’s recommendations C) Measurable data from the session D) Family history Answer: C Explanation: Objective sections contain measurable, observed data from the session. Question 51. What is the primary function of the orbicularis oris muscle in speech? A) Elevates the tongue B) Moves the jaw C) Closes and rounds the lips D) Tenses the palate Answer: C Explanation: The orbicularis oris muscle is responsible for closing and rounding the lips, important for many speech sounds. Question 52. Which of the following is a sign of dysphagia? A) Hoarse voice B) Coughing during meals C) Stuttering D) Hypernasality Answer: B Explanation: Coughing during eating is a red flag for swallowing difficulties (dysphagia).
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Answer: B Explanation: The Eustachian tube helps maintain equal air pressure on both sides of the eardrum. Question 58. Which of the following statements is true regarding language development in bilingual children? A) Bilingualism causes language disorders B) Bilingual children develop language at a slower rate than monolinguals C) Bilingual language development is typical and does not inherently cause disorders D) Bilingual children cannot learn two languages simultaneously Answer: C Explanation: Bilingual language development is normal and does not inherently lead to disorders. Question 59. A child who omits unstressed syllables (e.g., “nana” for “banana”) is demonstrating: A) Reduplication B) Syllable deletion C) Cluster reduction D) Final consonant deletion Answer: B Explanation: Syllable deletion occurs when the unstressed syllable is omitted from a word. Question 60. Which of the following best represents the social interactionist theory of language development? A) Language is learned through reinforcement B) Language is innate and genetically determined C) Language emerges through social interaction and communication with others D) Language is a product of cognitive processing Answer: C Explanation: The social interactionist theory posits that communication and social interaction drive language development. Question 61. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention in communication disorders? A) Newborn hearing screening B) Avoiding ototoxic medications C) Providing cochlear implants D) Speech therapy for stuttering Answer: B Explanation: Avoiding known risk factors, like ototoxic medications, is primary prevention.
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Question 62. Which of the following is an example of a consonant cluster reduction? A) “poon” for “spoon” B) “tat” for “cat” C) “gog” for “dog” D) “nana” for “banana” Answer: A Explanation: Cluster reduction involves simplifying a consonant cluster to a single sound. Question 63. In which Piagetian stage does a child typically master conservation tasks? A) Sensorimotor B) Preoperational C) Concrete operational D) Formal operational Answer: C Explanation: Conservation is mastered in the concrete operational stage (ages 7 – 11). Question 64. Which professional is most appropriate to collaborate with when a child has feeding and swallowing issues due to sensory processing disorder? A) Audiologist B) Occupational therapist C) Physical therapist D) Social worker Answer: B Explanation: Occupational therapists address sensory processing issues that may impact feeding and swallowing. Question 65. Which of the following is considered a neurogenic voice disorder? A) Vocal fold nodules B) Spasmodic dysphonia C) Psychogenic aphonia D) Muscle tension dysphonia Answer: B Explanation: Spasmodic dysphonia is caused by neurological impairment to the laryngeal muscles. Question 66. Which of the following is a common sign of receptive language disorder in a preschool child? A) Limited vocabulary B) Difficulty following directions C) Poor articulation D) Rapid speech Answer: B
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D) Excess and equal stress Answer: A Explanation: Flaccid dysarthria features muscle weakness leading to hypernasality and imprecise speech. Question 72. Which of the following is a typical characteristic of cluttering? A) Consistent articulation errors B) Rapid and irregular speech rate C) Effortful, slow speech D) Frequent blocks Answer: B Explanation: Cluttering is marked by rapid, irregular speech and breakdowns in clarity. Question 73. Which of the following would be most appropriate when counseling a family about their child’s communication disorder? A) Use technical jargon B) Use clear, simple language C) Avoid discussing prognosis D) Withhold information until all testing is complete Answer: B Explanation: Effective counseling requires clear and simple language tailored to the family’s understanding. Question 74. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy for dysphagia? A) Public education on safe swallowing techniques B) Early screening of at-risk infants C) Providing dietary modifications for a patient with chronic dysphagia D) Immunizing against rubella Answer: C Explanation: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing the impact of established disorders, such as dietary modifications. Question 75. Which of the following is a language disorder that affects both receptive and expressive skills? A) Specific language impairment B) Articulation disorder C) Cluttering D) Voice disorder Answer: A Explanation: Specific language impairment affects both understanding and use of language.
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Question 76. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing a communication disorder? A) Family history of language impairment B) Prematurity C) Exposure to diverse linguistic backgrounds D) Low birth weight Answer: C Explanation: Exposure to diverse linguistic backgrounds is not a risk factor; it is a normal variation. Question 77. Which of the following provides the best example of a culturally responsive service? A) Using only standardized assessments in English B) Adapting intervention materials to reflect the client’s cultural background C) Discouraging the use of the home language D) Ignoring cultural beliefs about disability Answer: B Explanation: Culturally responsive services include adapting materials to fit the client’s culture. Question 78. Which of the following is true regarding dialectal differences? A) They should always be treated as disorders B) They reflect systematic language variations, not disorders C) They are only found in non-English speakers D) They result from hearing impairment Answer: B Explanation: Dialects are systematic variations, not disorders, and do not require treatment. Question 79. Which of the following is a typical feature of expressive language disorder? A) Difficulty understanding language B) Difficulty producing grammatically correct sentences C) Frequent stuttering D) Voice hoarseness Answer: B Explanation: Expressive language disorder affects the ability to produce language. Question 80. Which professional is most appropriate to collaborate with for a client with suspected dysphagia and aspiration pneumonia? A) Dietitian B) Audiologist C) Physical therapist D) Respiratory therapist Answer: A Explanation: Dietitians are key team members in managing nutrition and safe swallowing for dysphagia patients.
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D) Repetitions Answer: B Explanation: A wet or gurgly voice indicates possible aspiration during swallowing. Question 86. Which of the following is a characteristic of right hemisphere brain damage? A) Fluent aphasia B) Impaired pragmatics and prosody C) Severe receptive language deficits D) Apraxia of speech Answer: B Explanation: Right hemisphere damage often affects pragmatic skills and prosody. Question 87. Which of the following is a typical example of a pragmatic language goal for a school- aged child? A) Increasing vocabulary size B) Using complex sentences C) Initiating greetings appropriately D) Producing the /s/ sound Answer: C Explanation: Pragmatic goals relate to the social use of language, such as initiating greetings. Question 88. Which of the following is a characteristic of spastic dysarthria? A) Breathiness B) Strained-strangled voice C) Rapid speech rate D) Inconsistent errors Answer: B Explanation: Spastic dysarthria produces a strained, strangled vocal quality due to increased muscle tone. Question 89. Which of the following is considered a psychogenic voice disorder? A) Spasmodic dysphonia B) Vocal fold paralysis C) Functional aphonia D) Muscle tension dysphonia Answer: C Explanation: Functional aphonia is loss of voice without organic pathology, often psychogenic in origin.
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Question 90. Which of the following is NOT a component of evidence-based practice? A) Clinical expertise B) Patient values C) Random assignment D) Best available research evidence Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based practice involves clinical expertise, patient values, and research evidence, not random assignment. Question 91. Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of mastication? A) Facial (VII) B) Trigeminal (V) C) Glossopharyngeal (IX) D) Vagus (X) Answer: B Explanation: The trigeminal nerve (V) supplies the muscles needed for chewing. Question 92. Which of the following is a characteristic of the sensorimotor stage according to Piaget? A) Symbolic play B) Object permanence C) Abstract thought D) Conservation Answer: B Explanation: The sensorimotor stage (birth–2 years) is noted for the development of object permanence. Question 93. Which of the following is the best example of an articulation disorder? A) Omitting grammatical endings B) Substituting /w/ for /r/ C) Difficulty following directions D) Reducing syllables Answer: B Explanation: Substituting one sound for another is a hallmark of articulation disorders. Question 94. Which of the following is true about language development in children with Down syndrome? A) They always have typical language development B) Receptive language is typically stronger than expressive language C) Expressive language is stronger than receptive language D) Pragmatic skills are always impaired
