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Question 1. Which component of the CIA Triad primarily ensures that data is not altered without authorization? A) Confidentiality B) Integrity C) Availability D) Authentication Answer: B Explanation: Integrity guarantees that information remains accurate and unmodified during storage, processing, and transmission. Question 2. In the McCumber Cube, which axis represents the “who” that interacts with information? A) Confidentiality B) Technology C) Security Services D) Human Answer: D Explanation: The “human” axis addresses the people (users, administrators) who create, use, or protect data. Question 3. Which security model emphasizes “defense in depth” by layering policies, networks, systems, and data? A) McCumber Cube B) Bull’s‑eye Model
C) Zachman Framework D) ISO 27001 Answer: B Explanation: The Bull’s‑eye Model visualizes concentric layers of security controls from policies down to data. Question 4. A top‑down security implementation approach is most closely associated with which of the following? A) Reactive patch management B) Executive‑driven risk assessment C) End‑user awareness training first D) Automated vulnerability scanning Answer: B Explanation: Top‑down starts with senior management defining risk appetite and policies, then cascading controls. Question 5. The primary responsibility of a CISO differs from an ISO in that the CISO is mainly accountable for __________. A) Daily system hardening B) Strategic security governance C) Network device configuration D) Incident ticket resolution Answer: B
B) Expected loss equals control cost C) Risk is eliminated completely D) All vulnerabilities are patched Answer: B Explanation: The break‑even point occurs when the expense of a control equals the monetary benefit of avoided loss. Question 9. During which SDLC phase should security requirements be defined? A) Implementation B) Maintenance C) Investigation D) Logical design Answer: C Explanation: The investigation (or planning) phase identifies business and security needs before design begins. Question 10. Which firewall type inspects the state of active connections and tracks packet sequences? A) Packet‑filtering firewall B) Stateless firewall C) Stateful inspection firewall D) Application‑level gateway Answer: C
Explanation: Stateful firewalls maintain a connection table to evaluate traffic context. Question 11. A proxy server that operates at the application layer is also known as a: A) Packet filter B) NAT device C) Application‑level gateway D) IDS Answer: C Explanation: Application‑level gateways (proxy servers) mediate traffic for specific protocols. Question 12. Which IDS category is installed directly on a host to monitor file integrity and system logs? A) NIDPS B) HIDPS C) Signature‑based IDS D) Anomaly‑based IDS Answer: B Explanation: Host‑based IDS (HIDPS) focuses on a single system’s behavior. Question 13. Signature‑based detection is most effective against: A) Zero‑day exploits B) Known malware patterns C) Insider threats
A) Generates malware signatures B) Exploits discovered weaknesses C) Identifies unpatched software and misconfigurations D) Blocks inbound traffic Answer: C Explanation: Scanners map systems to locate missing patches, open ports, and configuration errors. Question 17. Which tool is commonly used for packet capture and analysis on the command line? A) Nmap B) Wireshark C) Tcpdump D) Metasploit Answer: C Explanation: Tcpdump captures and displays packet headers via the command line. Question 18. A honeypot is best described as: A) A firewall rule set B) A decoy system that appears vulnerable C) An intrusion prevention system D) A backup storage device Answer: B
Explanation: Honeypots lure attackers to monitor tactics without risking production assets. Question 19. Which symmetric algorithm is considered the current industry standard for bulk data encryption? A) DES B) 3DES C) AES D) RC Answer: C Explanation: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) offers strong security and performance. Question 20. RSA is an example of a __________ encryption system. A) Symmetric B) Asymmetric C) Hashing D) Stream Answer: B Explanation: RSA uses a public/private key pair for encryption and digital signatures. Question 21. The Diffie‑Hellman protocol is primarily used for: A) Digital signatures B) Secure key exchange C) Data integrity verification
A) Registration Authority (RA) B) Certificate Authority (CA) C) Validation Authority (VA) D) Trust Anchor Answer: B Explanation: The CA signs and publishes certificates, establishing trust. Question 25. Which protocol secures web traffic by providing encryption at the transport layer? A) HTTP B) FTP C) TLS D) SMTP Answer: C Explanation: TLS (Transport Layer Security) encrypts data between client and server. Question 26. S/MIME is primarily used to protect: A) Web pages B) Email messages C) VPN tunnels D) Database backups Answer: B
Explanation: Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) encrypts and signs email. Question 27. Which protocol replaces Telnet for secure remote command‑line access? A) FTP B) SSH C) RDP D) SNMP Answer: B Explanation: SSH encrypts session data, preventing eavesdropping. Question 28. IPsec’s ESP protocol provides: A) Authentication only B) Encryption only C) Both encryption and optional authentication D) Routing information Answer: C Explanation: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encrypts payload and can include an integrity check. Question 29. A worm differs from a virus mainly because a worm: A) Requires user interaction to spread B) Propagates autonomously across networks C) Modifies executable files only
A) Strong passwords B) Unencrypted communication channels C) Physical security controls D) Antivirus signatures Answer: B Explanation: MitM intercepts data in transit when encryption is absent or weak. Question 33. IP spoofing primarily attempts to: A) Change the MAC address of a device B) Masquerade as a trusted IP address C) Corrupt routing tables D) Hijack wireless signals Answer: B Explanation: Attackers forge source IP addresses to appear legitimate. Question 34. Phishing attacks are most commonly delivered via: A) USB drives B) Phone calls C) Email messages with malicious links D) Physical mail Answer: C
Explanation: Email is the primary vector for phishing lures. Question 35. Spear phishing differs from generic phishing by: A) Targeting a broad audience B) Using mass‑mailing tools C) Personalizing content to a specific individual or organization D) Attacking only government agencies Answer: C Explanation: Spear phishing tailors messages to increase credibility. Question 36. Which social‑engineering technique involves following an authorized person into a restricted area? A) Pretexting B) Tailgating C) Baiting D) Vishing Answer: B Explanation: Tailgating exploits physical access by piggybacking on legitimate entry. Question 37. Cross‑Site Scripting (XSS) primarily exploits weaknesses in: A) Database query construction B) Input validation on web applications C) Network firewalls
Question 40. Which biometric factor is considered “something you are”? A) Password B) Smart card C) Fingerprint D) Token Answer: C Explanation: Biometrics (fingerprint, retina) verify physical characteristics. Question 41. CCTV systems primarily serve which security objective? A) Access control enforcement B) Data encryption C) Monitoring and deterrence D) Incident response automation Answer: C Explanation: Closed‑circuit TV provides visual surveillance to detect and deter unauthorized activity. Question 42. A Faraday cage is used to protect equipment from: A) Physical intrusion B) Electromagnetic interference and EMP attacks C) Insider threats D) Malware
Answer: B Explanation: Faraday cages block external electromagnetic fields. Question 43. Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is conducted to: A) Identify technical vulnerabilities B) Rank mission‑critical processes and quantify impact of disruption C) Evaluate employee performance D) Design network topology Answer: B Explanation: BIA determines which functions are essential and the consequences of downtime. Question 44. Which phase of Incident Response focuses on preserving evidence and preventing further damage? A) Preparation B) Identification C) Containment D) Lessons Learned Answer: C Explanation: Containment isolates the incident to stop spread and protect forensic data. Question 45. A full backup differs from an incremental backup in that a full backup: A) Stores only changed files since the last backup B) Captures all selected data each time it runs
Question 48. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) criminalizes: A) Unauthorized access to protected computers B) Physical theft of hardware only C) Sharing open‑source software D) Using strong passwords Answer: A Explanation: CFAA makes it illegal to access a computer without authorization or exceed authorized access. Question 49. Which professional code of ethics emphasizes “protecting society, the common good, and the infrastructure”? A) ISACA Code of Professional Ethics B) (ISC)² Code of Ethics C) SANS Code of Conduct D) IEEE Code of Ethics Answer: B Explanation: (ISC)²’s Code stresses safeguarding the public and infrastructure. Question 50. An Enterprise Information Security Policy (EISP) typically addresses: A) Configuration of a single server B) Organization‑wide security objectives and governance C
Answer: B Explanation: EISPs define overarching security goals, roles, and responsibilities for the entire enterprise. Question 51. Which type of security policy is focused on a specific technology such as “email usage”? A) Enterprise Information Security Policy B) Issue‑Specific Security Policy C) System‑Specific Policy D) Disaster Recovery Policy Answer: B Explanation: Issue‑Specific policies address particular topics like email, internet, or mobile device use. Question 52. A system‑specific policy would most likely be found in: A) Corporate mission statement B) Server hardening checklist C) Employee handbook D) Vendor contract Answer: B Explanation: System‑specific policies detail configuration and security controls for individual systems. Question 53. In a firewall rule set, “default deny” is an example of which principle? A) Least privilege B) Defense in depth
