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Question 1. Which of the following best defines software as distinguished from hardware? A) Tangible components that can be physically touched B) A set of instructions that tell hardware what to do C) Electrical circuits that process data D) The physical device that stores data Answer: B Explanation: Software consists of programs, procedures, and documentation that instruct hardware on how to operate; it is intangible, unlike hardware. Question 2. In the context of software characteristics, which attribute refers to the ease with which a software system can be modified to add new features? A) Portability B) Maintainability C) Usability D) Security Answer: B Explanation: Maintainability measures how easily a system can be corrected, improved, or adapted, including adding new functionality. Question 3. The “software crisis” of the 1960s primarily arose because: A) Hardware became too cheap and abundant B) Projects frequently exceeded budget, schedule, and quality expectations C) Programming languages were too powerful D) Users demanded more graphical interfaces Answer: B Explanation: The crisis highlighted frequent project failures due to poor management, inadequate processes, and lack of systematic engineering practices.
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Question 4. In the generic software process framework, which phase directly follows “modeling”? A) Planning B) Construction C) Deployment D) Communication Answer: B Explanation: After modeling (design), the construction phase implements the design into working software. Question 5. Which of the following is a key disadvantage of the Waterfall model? A) High customer involvement throughout the project B) Difficulty accommodating changes after a phase is completed C) Parallel development of components D) Frequent iterative releases Answer: B Explanation: Waterfall’s linear nature makes it costly and difficult to incorporate changes once a phase has been finalized. Question 6. In an Incremental development model, the first increment typically delivers: A) The complete system with all features B) A prototype used only for demonstration C) A core set of essential functionalities D) Only the user interface design Answer: C Explanation: The initial increment provides a minimal viable product containing the most critical functions, allowing early feedback.
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A) Use cases B) Quality attributes or “-ilities” C) Data models D) Test cases Answer: B Explanation: Non-functional requirements describe system qualities such as performance, reliability, and security, often ending in “-ability” or “-ility”. Question 11. During feasibility study, which type of feasibility assesses whether the project fits within the organization’s budget and financial constraints? A) Technical feasibility B) Economic feasibility C) Operational feasibility D) Legal feasibility Answer: B Explanation: Economic feasibility evaluates cost-benefit, ROI, and financial viability of the project. Question 12. Which elicitation technique uses a structured set of questions to gather requirements from stakeholders? A) Brainstorming B) Interviews C) Prototyping D) Observation Answer: B Explanation: Interviews involve asking stakeholders a predefined questionnaire to extract detailed requirements. Question 13. In a Software Requirements Specification (SRS) document, the “functional description” section typically contains:
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A) Performance metrics and response times B) Detailed use cases and functional requirements C) Project schedule and milestones D) Coding standards and naming conventions Answer: B Explanation: The functional description outlines what the system must do, often via use cases and functional requirements. Question 14. Validation of requirements primarily ensures that the requirements are: A) Written in natural language B) Consistent, complete, and realistic C) Implemented in code correctly D) Optimized for performance Answer: B Explanation: Validation checks that requirements accurately reflect stakeholder needs and are free of contradictions. Question 15. A context diagram is used to: A) Show detailed class relationships B) Define system boundaries and external entities C) Model internal data flow D) Illustrate user interface layouts Answer: B Explanation: Context diagrams depict the system as a single process with inputs/outputs to external actors. Question 16. Which UML diagram is most appropriate for modeling the sequence of messages exchanged between objects during a use case? A) Class diagram
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C) Layered architecture D) Repository Answer: C Explanation: Layered architecture stacks logical tiers, each with distinct responsibilities, promoting separation of concerns. Question 20. In the Repository architectural pattern, components share data through: A) Direct method calls B) A central data store (the repository) C) Message queues only D) Remote procedure calls Answer: B Explanation: The Repository pattern uses a common data storage component that multiple clients can query and update. Question 21. Which of the following best describes the “Client-Server” architectural style? A) All components run on a single machine B) Clients request services from a dedicated server process C) Data flows through a series of independent filters D) Components are loosely coupled via a shared repository Answer: B Explanation: In client-server, clients initiate requests and servers provide the requested services. Question 22. The Pipe-and-Filter architecture is most appropriate for which type of system? A) Real-time transaction processing B. Data transformation pipelines (e.g., compilers)
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C. Highly interactive GUI applications D. Distributed file systems Answer: B Explanation: Pipe-and-Filter consists of processing stages (filters) connected by data streams (pipes), ideal for transformation pipelines. Question 23. Cohesion refers to: A) The degree of interdependence between modules B) The strength of relationships among classes in a package C) The extent to which elements of a module belong together to perform a single task D) The number of interfaces a module implements Answer: C Explanation: High cohesion means a module’s responsibilities are closely related and focused. Question 24. Which type of coupling is considered the most desirable? A) Content coupling B) Common-coupling C) Data-coupling D) Message (or Stamp) coupling Answer: D Explanation: Message (or stamp) coupling only passes data through well-defined interfaces, minimizing interdependence. Question 25. The “golden rules” of user-interface design include which of the following principles? A) Consistency, feedback, and simplicity B. Complexity, novelty, and surprise C. Hidden functionality, minimal documentation, and opacity
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Answer: B Explanation: Reviews are static analyses that find defects before execution. Question 29. Which testing level focuses on verifying the interaction between integrated modules? A. Unit testing B. System testing C. Integration testing D. Acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: Integration testing validates that combined components work together correctly. Question 30. In a “big-bang” integration approach, the system is: A. Integrated and tested incrementally, one module at a time B. Integrated all at once after all modules are developed C. Tested only at the UI level D. Not tested until after deployment Answer: B Explanation: Big-bang integrates the entire system in a single step, which can hide interface defects. Question 31. Which of the following is a characteristic of white-box testing? A. Tests are derived solely from requirements B. Test cases are based on internal code structure and paths C. No knowledge of the internal implementation is needed D. It is only used for performance testing Answer: B
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Explanation: White-box testing uses knowledge of code logic to design tests, such as path or branch testing. Question 32. Equivalence partitioning is a black-box technique that: A. Divides input data into classes that are expected to behave similarly B. Generates test cases for every possible execution path C. Measures code coverage percentages D. Requires source code analysis Answer: A Explanation: It reduces the number of test cases by selecting representative values from each equivalence class. Question 33. Boundary-value analysis complements equivalence partitioning by focusing on: A. Random input generation B. The extreme ends of each equivalence class C. Database schema design D. User interface layout Answer: B Explanation: Boundary testing selects test inputs at the edges of input ranges where defects often occur. Question 34. Test-Driven Development (TDD) follows which sequence? A. Code → Test → Refactor B. Design → Code → Test C. Test → Code → Refactor D. Refactor → Test → Deploy Answer: C Explanation: TDD writes a failing test first, then implements code to pass the test, and finally refactors.
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A. Reducing future defects by improving code structure B. Adding new business rules C. Upgrading the UI design D. Migrating to cloud infrastructure Answer: A Explanation: Preventive maintenance anticipates and mitigates potential problems, often by refactoring or updating documentation. Question 39. Reverse engineering is used to: A. Generate source code from high-level designs B. Derive design artifacts from existing code or binaries C. Compile code faster D. Encrypt source code for protection Answer: B Explanation: Reverse engineering extracts higher-level representations (e.g., models, documentation) from existing software. Question 40. Business process re-engineering (BPR) in the context of software re-engineering aims to: A. Automate existing processes without change B. Redesign business processes to achieve dramatic improvements, often with new software support C. Translate code from one language to another D. Perform routine bug fixes Answer: B Explanation: BPR seeks radical redesign of processes, frequently requiring new or substantially altered software. Question 41. Which project management artifact breaks the project into deliverable-oriented components?
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A. Gantt chart B. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) C. Risk register D. Critical path diagram Answer: B Explanation: A WBS hierarchically decomposes the project into manageable work packages. Question 42. In risk management, the process of estimating the probability and impact of identified risks is called: A. Risk identification B. Risk analysis (or projection) C. Risk mitigation D. Risk monitoring Answer: B Explanation: Risk analysis quantifies each risk’s likelihood and potential effect to prioritize responses. Question 43. The COCOMO model’s primary input is: A. Number of function points B. Lines of code (LOC) and project attributes C. Number of test cases D. Number of team members Answer: B Explanation: COCOMO estimates effort based on estimated source lines of code and cost drivers. Question 44. Function Point analysis measures: A. Physical size of the source code in bytes B. Functional user-visible features independent of programming language
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Answer: B Explanation: ISO 9000 provides guidelines for establishing and maintaining effective quality management. Question 48. The Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) Level 3 indicates that an organization has: A. Managed processes with quantitative performance metrics B. Defined processes that are documented, standardized, and integrated across projects C. Optimized processes focusing on continuous improvement D. Ad-hoc processes without documentation Answer: B Explanation: Level 3 (Defined) requires that processes are documented and standardized across the organization. Question 49. Which metric is considered a product metric? A. Defect density per KLOC B. Team velocity in story points per sprint C. Number of change requests processed per month D. Cost variance percentage Answer: A Explanation: Defect density (defects per thousand lines of code) measures a characteristic of the product itself. Question 50. Process metrics typically include: A. Lines of code per module B. Cyclomatic complexity of functions C. Schedule variance and effort variance D. Number of user interface screens Answer: C
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Explanation: Process metrics evaluate how the development process performs, such as schedule and effort deviations. Question 51. Which of the following is an ethical responsibility of a software engineer? A. Disclose known security vulnerabilities to affected users promptly B. Use proprietary code without permission C. Manipulate test results to meet deadlines D. Release software without user documentation Answer: A Explanation: Ethical codes require engineers to protect the public by responsibly reporting security issues. Question 52. Intellectual property law protects software primarily through: A. Patents, copyrights, and trade secrets B. Open-source licenses only C. Hardware warranties D. Network firewalls Answer: A Explanation: Software can be protected by copyright (source code), patents (inventions), and trade secrets (confidential algorithms). Question 53. In the context of software engineering, a “legacy system” is best described as: A. A brand-new application written in the latest language B. An existing system that is still in use but may be outdated or hard to maintain C. A system that has been discontinued and removed from production D. A prototype that never went into production Answer: B
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Explanation: Layers can be developed and tested separately, improving modularity and maintainability. Question 57. In object-oriented design, the principle of “information hiding” is most closely associated with: A. Inheritance B. Encapsulation C. Polymorphism D. Aggregation Answer: B Explanation: Encapsulation restricts access to internal object data, exposing only necessary interfaces. Question 58. Which of the following UML diagrams is most appropriate for showing the static structure of a system, including classes, attributes, and relationships? A. Sequence diagram B. Use-case diagram C. Class diagram D. Activity diagram Answer: C Explanation: Class diagrams model the static structure of objects and their interrelationships. Question 59. A “stamp” coupling between modules is characterized by: A. Sharing global variables B. Passing data structures that contain only the needed information C. Directly accessing another module’s internal data D. Using file I/O for communication Answer: B
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Explanation: Stamp (or data-structured) coupling transmits only necessary data, reducing interdependence. Question 60. Which testing technique is designed to traverse every possible path through a program’s control flow graph at least once? A. Basis-path testing B. Equivalence partitioning C. Random testing D. Stress testing Answer: A Explanation: Basis-path testing uses cyclomatic complexity to create a set of independent paths covering the control flow. Question 61. In risk-driven development (Spiral model), the “risk resolution” activity primarily occurs at which point in each iteration? A. At the very start before any requirements are gathered B. After design but before implementation C. After construction, before the next spiral cycle D. Only after the final product is delivered Answer: C Explanation: Each spiral loop ends with risk resolution, ensuring identified risks are mitigated before proceeding. Question 62. The primary purpose of a feasibility study’s operational feasibility analysis is to: A. Determine the required hardware specifications B. Assess whether the organization can support and maintain the system operationally C. Estimate the total cost of the project D. Evaluate legal constraints of the system
