Download PrepIQ Access to HE Diploma Global Studies and Sustainability Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
Question 1. Which historical phase is characterized by the emergence of maritime trade routes linking Europe, Asia, and Africa between the 15th and 18th centuries? A) Proto-globalisation B) Early modern globalisation C) Neoliberal globalisation D) Digital globalisation Answer: B Explanation: Early modern globalisation (often dated 1500-1800) saw the rise of sea-based trade networks, colonisation, and the diffusion of goods and ideas across continents. Question 2. In the hyperglobalist view, which of the following is considered the primary driver of world-wide economic integration? A) State-led development plans B) Technological innovation C) Cultural homogenisation D) Institutional fragmentation Answer: B Explanation: Hyperglobalists argue that advances in technology—especially communication and transport—are the main forces pulling economies into a single global market. Question 3. The term “glocalisation” most accurately refers to: A) The replacement of local cultures by a uniform global culture B) The process where global firms adapt their products to local preferences
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
C) The decline of global trade in favour of regional self-sufficiency D) The legal unification of trade standards worldwide Answer: B Explanation: Glocalisation describes how multinational companies tailor global products and services to meet local cultural, regulatory, and consumer needs. Question 4. According to World-Systems Theory, which zone is most likely to supply raw materials to the core while having limited industrial capacity? A) Core B) Semi-periphery C) Periphery D) Hinterland Answer: C Explanation: The periphery consists of less-developed regions that export primary commodities to the industrialised core and have weak domestic manufacturing. Question 5. Modernisation Theory suggests that societies progress through a series of stages. Which of the following is NOT one of its classic stages? A) Traditional society B) Pre-conditions for take-off C) Take-off D) Dependency lock-in Answer: D
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
A) A nation unilaterally imposing tariffs on all imports. B) A country signing the Paris Agreement and submitting NDCs. C) A state establishing a national language policy. D) A government nationalising its oil industry. Answer: B Explanation: By signing the Paris Agreement, a state voluntarily limits its sovereign policy-making to meet internationally negotiated climate targets. Question 9. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is primarily criticised for: A) Providing unconditional grants to developing countries. B) Imposing structural adjustment policies that may undermine social services. C) Enforcing strict environmental standards on member states. D) Operating without any voting system among members. Answer: B Explanation: Critics argue that IMF conditionalities—such as fiscal austerity— can reduce public spending on health, education, and social protection. Question 10. Which of the following NGOs is most associated with global advocacy for children's rights? A) Oxfam B. Greenpeace C. UNICEF D. Amnesty International Answer: C
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
Explanation: UNICEF (United Nations Children’s Fund) focuses on child health, education, and protection worldwide, often influencing policy and funding. Question 11. Multinational corporations (MNCs) differ from transnational corporations (TNCs) primarily because: A) MNCs are owned by governments, while TNCs are privately held. B) MNCs maintain a strong home-country identity, whereas TNCs adopt a more dispersed, global identity. C) MNCs only operate in developed markets, while TNCs operate only in developing markets. D) MNCs are prohibited from foreign direct investment, unlike TNCs. Answer: B Explanation: TNCs tend to decentralise decision-making and integrate operations across borders, whereas MNCs keep strategic control in the home country. Question 12. The Brundtland Report (1987) defined sustainable development as: A) Economic growth without environmental regulation. B) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet theirs. C) Preservation of natural resources at the expense of social welfare. D. Unlimited exploitation of renewable resources. Answer: B Explanation: This widely-cited definition links present-day human needs with intergenerational equity.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
Explanation: SDG 13 aims to “take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts.” Question 16. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) primarily provides: A. Legal enforcement mechanisms for climate treaties. B. Scientific assessments that inform policy decisions. C. Funding for renewable energy projects. D. Direct emissions reduction targets for nations. Answer: B Explanation: The IPCC synthesises peer-reviewed research to produce assessment reports used by governments worldwide. Question 17. Under the Paris Agreement, each country must submit: A. A legally binding emission cap. B. A Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC). C. A renewable energy subsidy plan. D. A climate-related trade tariff schedule. Answer: B Explanation: NDCs outline each nation’s voluntary climate mitigation and adaptation targets, reviewed every five years. Question 18. Climate justice emphasizes: A. Uniform emission reductions for all countries regardless of development level. B. Recognition that vulnerable populations bear disproportionate climate impacts.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
C. Prioritising technological fixes over social equity. D. Ignoring historical emissions in policy design. Answer: B Explanation: Climate justice argues that responsibility and assistance should reflect historic contributions and differential vulnerabilities. Question 19. Which mitigation technology captures CO₂ directly from the atmosphere? A. Carbon capture and storage (CCS) from power plants. B. Afforestation. C. Direct air capture (DAC). D. Biochar production. Answer: C Explanation: DAC uses chemical processes to extract CO₂ from ambient air, allowing storage or utilisation. Question 20. In the context of agriculture, agroecology differs from intensive farming by: A. Maximising yields through synthetic fertilizers and pesticides. B. Integrating ecological principles, biodiversity, and local knowledge. C. Prioritising monocultures for export markets. D. Relying exclusively on genetically modified crops. Answer: B Explanation: Agroecology emphasises sustainable, diversified, and locally adapted farming practices.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
Explanation: A carbon tax puts a price on each tonne of CO₂ emitted, encouraging emitters to reduce emissions or switch to cleaner alternatives. Question 24. Oceanic plastic pollution is primarily driven by: A. Natural volcanic eruptions. B. Improper waste management and single-use plastics. C. Deep-sea mining. D. Marine protected areas. Answer: B Explanation: Mismanaged plastic waste on land enters rivers and oceans, accumulating as debris that harms marine ecosystems. Question 25. Which of the following best captures the concept of “weak sustainability”? A. Natural capital cannot be substituted by human-made capital. B. Economic growth can continue as long as total capital stock does not decline. C. All ecosystems must be preserved in their original state. D. Social equity is the sole focus of sustainability. Answer: B Explanation: Weak sustainability assumes that natural and manufactured capital are interchangeable, allowing substitution as long as overall capital is maintained. Question 26. The World Bank’s “Doing Business” report primarily assesses: A. Environmental performance of nations.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
B. Ease of starting and operating a private business. C. Military spending per capita. D. Cultural heritage preservation. Answer: B Explanation: The report ranks economies based on regulatory environments affecting entrepreneurs, such as licensing, taxes, and property rights. Question 27. Which of the following is a hallmark of a “semi-peripheral” country in World-Systems Theory? A. Dominance in global finance. B. Exclusive reliance on raw-material exports. C. Mixed economy with both industrialised sectors and dependence on core markets. D. Complete isolation from global trade. Answer: C Explanation: Semi-peripheral nations have diversified economies and can act as buffers between core and periphery, often both producing and consuming manufactured goods. Question 28. In the context of SDG interlinkages, progress on SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) most directly supports which other goal? A. SDG 7 (Affordable Clean Energy) B. SDG 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production) C. SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-Being) D. SDG 15 (Life on Land) Answer: C
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
B. Reduced greenhouse gas emissions benefiting global health. C. Higher electricity prices for consumers. D. Noise pollution from wind turbines. Answer: B Explanation: Renewable energy reduces emissions, providing societal benefits (cleaner air, health) that are not captured by market prices. Question 32. The principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities” (CBDR) is embedded in which climate treaty? A. Kyoto Protocol B. Paris Agreement C. UNFCCC (1992) D. Montreal Protocol Answer: B Explanation: CBDR acknowledges that while all parties must act on climate change, developed nations bear greater historical responsibility and should lead with deeper cuts and support. Question 33. Which of the following best describes “greenwashing”? A. Genuine corporate investment in renewable technologies. B. Misleading claims about environmental performance to improve brand image. C. Government regulation of emissions. D. Transparent reporting of carbon footprints. Answer: B Explanation: Greenwashing occurs when organisations exaggerate or falsify environmental credentials to appear more sustainable than they truly are.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
Question 34. The term “bio-economy” most closely refers to: A. An economy based entirely on fossil fuels. B. The use of biological resources and processes for sustainable production. C. A system that bans all synthetic chemicals. D. The exclusive trade of agricultural commodities. Answer: B Explanation: Bio-economy leverages renewable biological inputs—such as biomass, bio-materials, and bio-energy—to replace non-renewable resources. Question 35. Which mechanism allows developing countries to receive financing for climate mitigation projects while earning carbon credits? A. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) B. Green Climate Fund (GCF) grants C. Emissions Trading System (ETS) in the EU D. International Monetary Fund (IMF) loans Answer: A Explanation: The CDM, established under the Kyoto Protocol, lets host countries earn Certified Emission Reduction (CER) credits for approved projects. Question 36. The “precautionary principle” in environmental policy suggests that: A. Action should be taken only after scientific certainty is established. B. Potential harm should be prevented even if full scientific proof is lacking. C. Economic growth must precede environmental regulation. D. All environmental risks are negligible.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
B. WHO
C. FAO
D. UNDP
Answer: B Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) leads international health policy, disease surveillance, and response coordination. Question 40. The “polluter-pay principle” is best illustrated by: A. Subsidising coal mining. B. Imposing fines on companies that exceed emission limits. C. Providing tax breaks for oil exploration. D. Ignoring industrial waste disposal. Answer: B Explanation: This principle holds that those who cause pollution should bear the costs of managing it, typically via charges or penalties. Question 41. Which of the following best describes “eco-efficiency”? A. Maximising economic output regardless of environmental impact. B. Producing more goods while using fewer resources and generating less waste. C. Eliminating all industrial activity. D. Prioritising ecological preservation over any economic considerations. Answer: B Explanation: Eco-efficiency seeks to decouple economic growth from environmental degradation through smarter resource use.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
Question 42. In climate adaptation, “resilience” refers to: A. The ability of a system to return to its original state after a disturbance. B. The capacity to completely avoid climate impacts. C. The speed of economic growth. D. The total elimination of greenhouse gases. Answer: A Explanation: Resilience is the capacity of communities, ecosystems, or economies to absorb shocks and recover functionality. Question 43. Which of the following is a major source of transboundary air pollution that leads to acid rain? A. Methane emissions from wetlands. B. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from coal-fired power plants. C. Carbon monoxide from vehicle exhaust. D. Water vapor from evaporation. Answer: B Explanation: SO₂ and nitrogen oxides released into the atmosphere can travel long distances, forming acidic compounds that precipitate as acid rain. Question 44. The “Just Transition” framework emphasizes: A. Rapid de-industrialisation without social safeguards. B. Shifting to a low-carbon economy while protecting workers and communities. C. Prioritising fossil-fuel subsidies to maintain employment. D. Ignoring labor rights in climate policy. Answer: B
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
Question 47. Which of the following is an example of a “green” fiscal policy? A. Reducing corporate tax rates across all sectors. B. Providing tax credits for solar panel installation. C. Eliminating all environmental regulations. D. Raising tariffs on imported food. Answer: B Explanation: Tax incentives for renewable energy installations encourage investment in low-carbon technologies. Question 48. The “Loss and Damage” mechanism under the UNFCCC addresses: A. Compensation for historical emissions only. B. Financial assistance for irreversible climate-related harms in vulnerable countries. C. Funding for clean-energy research in developed nations. D. Trade tariffs on carbon-intensive goods. Answer: B Explanation: Loss and Damage seeks to provide support for impacts that cannot be mitigated or adapted to, such as permanent loss of land. Question 49. Which of the following best describes “environmental governance” in the context of global sustainability? A. Solely the responsibility of national governments. B. A set of institutions, policies, and processes that manage human interaction with the environment. C. The market-driven pricing of natural resources only.
Studies and Sustainability Ultimate
Exam
D. The elimination of all regulations to promote economic freedom. Answer: B Explanation: Environmental governance includes international treaties, national policies, NGOs, and community actions that shape environmental outcomes. Question 50. The term “anthropocene” is used to denote: A. A geological epoch characterised by human-dominant impacts on Earth systems. B. The period before human influence began. C. A future era where technology eliminates all environmental problems. D. A mythological age in ancient literature. Answer: A Explanation: Scientists use “Anthropocene” to highlight that human activities now significantly alter climate, biodiversity, and geological processes. Question 51. Which of the following is a primary critique of the SDG framework? A. It does not address any environmental issues. B. The goals are too vague and lack measurable targets. C. The inter-goal trade-offs are insufficiently addressed, leading to potential conflicts. D. It focuses exclusively on developed nations. Answer: C Explanation: Critics argue that while the SDGs are comprehensive, they sometimes overlook how progress on one goal may hinder another, requiring careful policy integration.
