Download PrepIQ Basic Life Support CertificationIn Demand Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which of the following is the first step a rescuer should take upon arriving at a scene? A) Check the victim’s pulse B) Verify scene safety and don personal protective equipment (PPE) C) Begin chest compressions immediately D) Call for an ambulance Answer: B Explanation: Ensuring the environment is safe for both rescuer and victim prevents additional injuries and is the initial priority before any assessment or intervention. Question 2. The “Chain of Survival” for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA) includes how many links? A) Four B) Five C) Six D) Seven Answer: C Explanation: The six links are: early recognition & activation, early CPR, rapid defibrillation, effective advanced life support, integrated post-cardiac arrest care, and recovery. Question 3. During the initial assessment, how long should a rescuer spend simultaneously checking for breathing and a pulse? A) 5 seconds B) 10 seconds C) 15 seconds
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
D) 20 seconds Answer: B Explanation: The BLS guideline limits the combined check to no more than 10 seconds to avoid delaying chest compressions. Question 4. Agonal gasps are best described as: A) Normal, effective breaths B) Irregular, ineffective gasping breaths indicating cardiac arrest C) Signs of severe asthma D) A sign that the victim is awake Answer: B Explanation: Agonal gasps are abnormal, weak breaths that occur during cardiac arrest and should be treated as no breathing. Question 5. When activating emergency response in a hospital, the rescuer should: A) Call the nearest nurse station first B) Use the hospital’s designated emergency number or code (e.g., “Code Blue”) C) Search for an AED before calling for help D) Wait for a family member to call EMS Answer: B Explanation: Hospitals have specific emergency activation codes that immediately alert the resuscitation team. Question 6. The correct hand placement for adult chest compressions is:
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Question 9. Which of the following best describes “Chest Compression Fraction” (CCF)? A) The percentage of time spent delivering breaths during CPR B) The proportion of total resuscitation time spent performing chest compressions C) The ratio of compressions to ventilations D) The number of compressions delivered per minute Answer: B Explanation: CCF measures how much of the resuscitation period is devoted to compressions; a higher CCF (>60%, ideally >80%) improves outcomes. Question 10. In a single-rescuer scenario for an adult, the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio is: A) 15: B) 30: C) 30: D) 20: Answer: B Explanation: The 30 compressions to 2 breaths ratio is standard for both single- and two-rescuer adult CPR. Question 11. When providing rescue breathing to a patient who has a pulse but is not breathing, the recommended rate is: A) 1 breath every 3 seconds B) 1 breath every 5 seconds
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
C) 1 breath every 6 seconds D) 1 breath every 10 seconds Answer: C Explanation: One breath every 6 seconds provides approximately 10 breaths per minute, sufficient for oxygenation in a patient with a pulse. Question 12. An infant is defined as a child who is: A) Less than 6 months old B) Less than 1 year old C) Less than 2 years old D) Less than 3 years old Answer: B Explanation: BLS defines an infant as a patient younger than 12 months. Question 13. For a single rescuer performing CPR on an infant, the correct hand placement is: A) One hand over the lower half of the sternum B) Two fingers placed in the center of the chest, just below the nipple line C) Both hands encircling the chest D) The heel of one hand on the sternum Answer: B Explanation: Two-finger technique is recommended for infants when a single rescuer provides compressions. Question 14. In a two-rescuer infant CPR scenario, the recommended compression technique is:
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Pediatric two-rescuer CPR uses a 15:2 ratio to allow more frequent ventilations while still providing adequate compressions. Question 17. When using an AED on a pediatric patient weighing less than 25 kg, the recommended pad placement is: A) Both pads on the anterior chest, side by side B) One pad on the anterior chest and the other on the back (anteroposterior) C) Both pads on the back D) One pad on the abdomen, one on the chest Answer: B Explanation: The anteroposterior placement reduces the distance between pads on a small torso and is recommended for children. Question 18. The first action to take after turning on an AED is: A) Immediately deliver a shock B) Apply the electrode pads to the patient’s bare chest C) Start chest compressions D) Check the patient’s pulse Answer: B Explanation: After powering the AED, the device instructs to attach pads so it can analyze the rhythm. Question 19. If a patient has a hairy chest, the rescuer should: A) Shave the hair before applying AED pads B) Apply the pads directly; the AED can deliver a shock through hair C) Use a conductive gel to improve contact
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
D) Remove the hair with a razor and then apply pads Answer: B Explanation: AED pads can deliver a shock through hair; shaving is unnecessary and may delay treatment. Question 20. During the “analyze” phase of AED operation, which of the following is essential? A) Continue chest compressions B) Clear all personnel and objects from the victim C) Deliver a shock immediately after analysis D) Increase ventilation rate Answer: B Explanation: No one should be touching the patient during analysis to avoid interference and ensure accurate rhythm detection. Question 21. When using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) on an adult, the “E-C” clamp technique refers to: A) Extending the neck and compressing the abdomen B) Elevating the chin and closing the mouth to create a seal C) Expanding the chest and compressing the diaphragm D) Engaging the mask and covering the nose Answer: B Explanation: The “E-C” (elevate-chin, close-mouth) maneuver helps create an airtight mask seal for effective ventilation.
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Closed-loop communication involves a clear command, acknowledgment, and confirmation that the task is being performed. Question 25. Constructive intervention during a resuscitation attempt means: A) Ignoring a teammate’s mistake to avoid conflict B) Criticizing the teammate after the event C) Politely correcting a teammate’s technique in real time D) Taking over the teammate’s role without explaining Answer: C Explanation: Constructive intervention is a respectful, immediate correction to improve performance and patient outcome. Question 26. The primary sign of a suspected opioid overdose is: A) Rapid, shallow breathing B) Pinpoint pupils (miosis) and depressed mental status C) Hyperthermia D) High blood pressure Answer: B Explanation: Opioid toxicity commonly presents with pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and altered consciousness. Question 27. The recommended dose of intranasal naloxone for an adult suspected of opioid overdose is: A) 0.1 mg
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
B) 0.4 mg C) 1 mg D) 2 mg Answer: B Explanation: 0.4 mg intranasally is the standard initial dose; repeat doses may be given if no response. Question 28. In a conscious adult choking situation, the first maneuver to attempt is: A) Back blows B) Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) C) Chest compressions D) Head-tilt-chin-lift Answer: B Explanation: The Heimlich maneuver is the recommended first-line technique for a conscious adult or child with a foreign body airway obstruction (FBAO). Question 29. For a conscious infant with a foreign body airway obstruction, the initial relief technique is: A) Abdominal thrusts B) Five back slaps followed by five chest thrusts C) Heimlich maneuver D) Immediate CPR Answer: B Explanation: Infants should receive back slaps and chest thrusts because abdominal thrusts can cause injury.
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Answer: B Explanation: If a pulse is not detected within 10 seconds, the patient is presumed to be in cardiac arrest, and CPR should start immediately. Question 33. The correct sequence for a rescuer who finds an unresponsive adult victim who is not breathing normally is: A) Call for help → Check pulse → Begin compressions → Retrieve AED B) Tap and shout → Check breathing and pulse → Call for help → Start compressions C) Open airway → Give rescue breaths → Check pulse → Call EMS D) Retrieve AED → Begin compressions → Check pulse → Call EMS Answer: B Explanation: The BLS algorithm starts with assessing responsiveness, then breathing/pulse, followed by activation of emergency services and initiation of compressions. Question 34. Which of the following is NOT a recommended method for protecting oneself from infectious disease while performing BLS? A) Wearing gloves B) Using a face shield or mask C) Performing mouth-to-mouth ventilations without barrier devices D) Hand hygiene after the event Answer: C Explanation: Performing ventilations without a barrier increases risk of disease transmission; a mask or pocket mask should be used.
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Question 35. In a two-rescuer adult CPR scenario, the recommended cycle time for 30 compressions and 2 breaths is approximately: A) 8 seconds B) 12 seconds C) 15 seconds D) 20 seconds Answer: B Explanation: At a rate of 100–120 compressions per minute, 30 compressions take about 15–18 seconds; adding 2 breaths extends the cycle to roughly 12– 15 seconds total. Question 36. The term “full recoil” during chest compressions means: A) The rescuer pushes down as hard as possible B) The chest returns completely to its normal position between compressions C) The rescuer pauses for 2 seconds after each compression D) The rescuer uses both hands to compress Answer: B Explanation: Full recoil allows the heart to refill with blood, which is essential for effective perfusion. Question 37. Which of the following actions can most directly increase the Chest Compression Fraction (CCF) during a resuscitation attempt? A) Performing rescue breaths with a bag-valve-mask for 10 seconds before compressions B) Minimizing pauses for rhythm checks and shock delivery C) Delivering a shock before starting compressions
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Question 40. The recommended method for delivering rescue breaths with a pocket mask is: A) One-hand seal technique for all ages B) Two-hand “C-clamp” technique for infants only C) One-hand “C-clamp” for adults, two-hand “C-clamp” for children and infants D) No seal is required; just blow into the mask Answer: C Explanation: The one-hand “C-clamp” works for adults, while a two-hand “C-clamp” provides a better seal for smaller patients. Question 41. Which of the following best describes the “compression-only CPR” recommendation for untrained bystanders? A) 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths B) Continuous chest compressions at 100–120/min without rescue breaths C) 15 compressions and 2 breaths D) 10 compressions, 10 breaths, repeat Answer: B Explanation: Untrained rescuers are encouraged to provide hands-only compressions to maintain perfusion until help arrives. Question 42. In the context of BLS, the “pulse check” for an adult should be performed at which location? A) Carotid artery B) Radial artery C) Brachial artery
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
D) Femoral artery Answer: A Explanation: The carotid pulse is the most reliable site for quickly assessing circulation in an adult during cardiac arrest. Question 43. When performing CPR on a pregnant woman in the third trimester, the rescuer should: A) Perform compressions 2 inches lower on the sternum (upward displacement) B) Perform compressions as usual, but with an additional 10 mm depth C) Perform compressions 2 inches higher on the sternum (upward displacement) D) Avoid compressions and focus on ventilation only Answer: C Explanation: The uterus can compress the inferior vena cava; shifting compressions upward (about 2 inches) improves venous return. Question 44. The “duty cycle” of chest compressions refers to: A) The ratio of compression time to total cycle time (compression + release) B) The number of compressions per minute C) The depth of each compression D) The time spent delivering breaths Answer: A Explanation: Duty cycle is the proportion of time the chest is being compressed versus the total compression-release cycle, typically about 50%.
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
Answer: A Explanation: Post-shock, CPR should be resumed without delay for at least 2 minutes before the next rhythm check. Question 48. The recommended ventilation technique for a patient with a tracheostomy during CPR is: A) Deliver breaths through the mouth using a pocket mask B) Occlude the tracheostomy tube and ventilate orally C) Provide breaths directly through the tracheostomy tube using a BVM attached to a cuffed adapter D) No ventilation is needed; only compressions are required Answer: C Explanation: Ventilation should be delivered through the tracheostomy tube using a compatible adapter to ensure airway patency. Question 49. Which of the following is a sign that a victim may have a “pseudo-pulse” during CPR? A) Weak thready pulse at the carotid B) Strong, regular pulse at the radial C) No palpable pulse but a palpable “pulse” due to chest compressions D) Rapid, bounding pulse Answer: C Explanation: Chest compressions can create a palpable “pulse” that is not true circulation; it should not be mistaken for a genuine pulse. Question 50. In the event of a cardiac arrest occurring in a moving vehicle, the rescuer should:
CertificationIn Demand
Ultimate Exam
A) Perform CPR while the vehicle is still moving B) Pull the vehicle over safely before initiating CPR C) Wait for EMS to arrive before starting any intervention D) Use the vehicle’s seat belt as a tourniquet Answer: B Explanation: Safety for rescuer and victim requires stopping the vehicle in a safe location before beginning resuscitation. Question 51. The term “hands-only CPR” is most appropriate for which of the following rescuers? A) A trained healthcare professional B) A layperson with no formal CPR training C) A pediatric specialist D) A paramedic performing advanced life support Answer: B Explanation: Untrained bystanders are encouraged to perform hands-only compressions to simplify the process and increase willingness to help. Question 52. When using a pediatric AED pad set on a child >8 years old or >25 kg, the rescuer should: A) Use the adult pad set instead B) Continue with the pediatric pads as they are compatible C) Cut the pediatric pads in half D) Place only one pediatric pad on the chest Answer: B
