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Question 1. Which of the following most accurately describes a project? A) Ongoing operational work B) Temporary endeavor with a unique product, service, or result C) Permanent department within an organization D) Routine maintenance activity Answer: B Explanation: A project is defined as a temporary effort undertaken to create a unique deliverable, distinguishing it from ongoing operations. Question 2. In program management, a program is best characterized as: A) A single large project split into phases B) A collection of unrelated projects C) A group of related projects managed together to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually D) The portfolio of all organizational initiatives Answer: C Explanation: Programs coordinate related projects to achieve strategic benefits that exceed the sum of individual project outputs. Question 3. Which statement correctly defines a portfolio? A) A set of projects that share the same manager B) A collection of programs, projects, and operations aligned with strategic objectives C) A group of tasks within a single project D) The list of all deliverables for a project Answer: B
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Explanation: Portfolios aggregate programs, projects, and operational work to ensure alignment with organizational strategy. Question 4. Which life-cycle approach is most suitable when requirements are well understood and unlikely to change? A) Adaptive (Agile) B) Predictive (Waterfall) C) Hybrid D) Incremental Answer: B Explanation: Predictive life cycles assume stable requirements and plan the entire scope up front. Question 5. In which organizational structure does the project manager have the highest level of authority? A) Functional B) Weak matrix C) Balanced matrix D) Projectized Answer: D Explanation: In a projectized organization, the project manager controls resources and decisions, unlike functional or matrix structures. Question 6. Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) include all EXCEPT: A) Market conditions B) Organizational culture
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Question 9. Which stakeholder analysis technique helps determine influence and interest levels? A) Monte Carlo simulation B) Power/interest grid C) Earned value analysis D) Critical path method Answer: B Explanation: The power/interest grid maps stakeholders by their level of influence and interest. Question 10. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is primarily used to: A) Schedule resources B) Decompose project scope into manageable components C) Identify risks D) Allocate budget across functional departments Answer: B Explanation: A WBS breaks down the total scope into hierarchical, deliverable-oriented elements. Question 11. Which process group includes “Direct and Manage Project Work”? A) Initiating B) Planning C) Executing D) Monitoring and Controlling Answer: C
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Explanation: Direct and Manage Project Work is an Executing-process activity. Question 12. In Earned Value Management, a Cost Performance Index (CPI) greater than 1 indicates: A) The project is behind schedule B) The project is under budget C) The project has cost overruns D) The project scope is expanding Answer: B Explanation: CPI = EV / AC; a value >1 means earned value exceeds actual cost, indicating cost efficiency. Question 13. Which of the following is NOT a typical output of the Closing process group? A) Final product acceptance B) Lessons-learned documentation C) Updated risk register D) Release of project resources Answer: C Explanation: Updating the risk register occurs during Monitoring and Controlling, not Closing. Question 14. The Critical Path Method (CPM) is used to: A) Estimate resource costs B) Determine the longest sequence of activities that dictates project duration
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Question 17. Which Scrum role is responsible for maximizing the value of the product? A) Scrum Master B) Development Team member C) Product Owner D) Stakeholder Answer: C Explanation: The Product Owner owns the product backlog and prioritizes work to deliver maximum value. Question 18. During a Sprint Review, the primary activity is: A) Estimating the next sprint’s effort using story points B) Demonstrating the increment to stakeholders and gathering feedback C) Conducting a retrospective on team dynamics D) Updating the project charter Answer: B Explanation: Sprint Review focuses on inspecting the increment and adapting the product backlog. Question 19. Which Agile ceremony is time-boxed to 15 minutes for a typical 2-week sprint? A) Sprint Planning B) Sprint Review C) Daily Stand-up D) Sprint Retrospective Answer: C
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Explanation: The Daily Stand-up (Daily Scrum) is a short, time-boxed meeting for synchronization. Question 20. In Kanban, the Work In Progress (WIP) limit is used to: A) Increase the number of concurrent tasks B) Reduce multitasking and improve flow efficiency C) Determine the sprint length D) Calculate earned value Answer: B Explanation: WIP limits restrict the number of items in each column, promoting focus and faster flow. Question 21. Which Agile estimating technique uses “Planning Poker”? A) T-shirt sizing B) Story points estimation C) Function point analysis D) Critical path method Answer: B Explanation: Planning Poker is a collaborative method for assigning story points to user stories. Question 22. A program’s benefit management plan primarily addresses: A) Detailed task schedules for each project B) How benefits will be identified, measured, and realized C) The procurement strategy for the program D) The governance structure of the organization
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B) Number of communication channels in a group of n stakeholders C) Total number of work packages in a WBS D) Number of schedule dependencies Answer: B Explanation: This combinatorial formula gives the total pairwise communication channels. Question 26. Which conflict resolution technique seeks a win-win solution by integrating both parties’ concerns? A) Compromising B) Forcing C) Collaborating/Problem solving D) Smoothing Answer: C Explanation: Collaborating aims to address the underlying concerns of all parties for a mutually beneficial outcome. Question 27. According to PMI’s Code of Ethics, which principle emphasizes fairness and impartiality? A) Responsibility B) Respect C) Honesty D) Fairness Answer: D Explanation: Fairness requires equitable treatment and impartial decision-making.
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Question 28. Which process is responsible for “Perform Integrated Change Control”? A) Initiating B) Planning C) Executing D) Monitoring and Controlling Answer: D Explanation: Integrated Change Control is a Monitoring and Controlling activity that reviews and approves changes. Question 29. In a strong matrix organization, the project manager’s authority is: A) Limited to reporting status to functional managers B) Equal to that of functional managers (high authority) C) Non-existent; functional managers control all resources D) Solely advisory, with no budget control Answer: B Explanation: Strong matrix balances authority, giving the project manager significant control over resources and decisions. Question 30. Which of the following is a qualitative risk analysis technique? A) Monte Carlo simulation B) Decision tree analysis C) Probability and impact matrix
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B) Ensure a shared understanding of when work is complete and releasable C) Outline the sprint length D) Allocate budget for the sprint Answer: B Explanation: The DoD provides a clear, consistent checklist that marks an increment as complete. Question 34. Which scheduling technique allows activities to be performed in parallel when there are no dependencies? A) Critical chain method B) Fast tracking C) Crashing D) Resource leveling Answer: B Explanation: Fast tracking overlaps phases or activities that would normally be sequential, provided no dependencies exist. Question 35. The “Three-point estimate” uses which three values? A) Optimistic, Most Likely, Pessimistic B) Minimum, Maximum, Average C) Best case, Worst case, Expected Answer: A Explanation: The three-point technique (PERT) applies optimistic (O), most likely (M), and pessimistic (P) estimates to calculate expected values. Question 36. Which of the following best describes “Scope Creep”?
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A) Adding new resources without approval B) Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without adjustments to time, cost, or resources C) Reducing scope to meet budget constraints D) Reassigning tasks among team members Answer: B Explanation: Scope creep is the incremental enlargement of scope without proper change control. Question 37. In a functional organization, who typically holds primary authority over project resources? A) Project manager B) Functional manager C) Sponsor D) Scrum Master Answer: B Explanation: Functional managers control departmental resources; project managers have limited authority. Question 38. Which of these is a characteristic of a hybrid project life cycle? A) Entirely predictive planning with no iterations B) Combines predictive planning for scope with adaptive execution for delivery C) Uses only Kanban boards for tracking D) Requires no stakeholder involvement after kickoff Answer: B
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C) Low power, high interest D) Low power, low interest Answer: B Explanation: High power/low interest stakeholders need to be kept satisfied but not overly involved. Question 42. Which Agile artifact represents the work the team plans to complete during a sprint? A) Product backlog B) Sprint backlog C) Increment D) Definition of Done Answer: B Explanation: The sprint backlog contains selected product backlog items and the plan for delivering them in the sprint. Question 43. Which technique is used to prioritize backlog items based on value and effort? A) Monte Carlo analysis B) MoSCoW prioritization C) Critical path method D) Earned value analysis Answer: B Explanation: MoSCoW categorizes items as Must, Should, Could, Won’t for relative prioritization.
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Question 44. In Earned Value Management, Schedule Variance (SV) is calculated as: A) EV – AC B) PV – EV C) EV – PV D) AC – PV Answer: C Explanation: SV = Earned Value – Planned Value; positive SV indicates ahead of schedule. Question 45. Which of the following is a typical input to the “Develop Project Management Plan” process? A) Risk register B) Project charter C) Lessons learned register D) Issue log Answer: B Explanation: The charter provides high-level information that feeds into the comprehensive management plan. Question 46. Which of these is NOT a component of the triple constraint? A) Scope B) Time C) Cost D) Quality Answer: D
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C) A list of all program stakeholders D) The financial accounting system for the organization Answer: B Explanation: Governance defines how the program is directed, controlled, and evaluated. Question 50. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using a “strong matrix” organization for large, complex projects? A) Minimal need for communication across departments B) Clear authority for the project manager over resources C) Complete elimination of functional silos D) Reduced need for stakeholder engagement Answer: B Explanation: Strong matrices grant project managers significant authority, facilitating coordination across functions. Question 51. Which Agile principle emphasizes “working software over comprehensive documentation”? A) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation B) Responding to change over following a plan C) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools D) Working software over comprehensive documentation Answer: D Explanation: This principle prioritizes delivering functional software rather than excessive paperwork.
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Question 52. Which process is responsible for “Collect Requirements”? A) Initiating B) Planning C) Executing D) Monitoring and Controlling Answer: B Explanation: Collect Requirements is a Planning-process activity that defines stakeholder needs. Question 53. The “critical chain” method focuses on: A) Reducing cost by crashing activities B) Managing resource dependencies and buffers to protect the schedule C) Optimizing the sequence of activities for minimum duration D) Identifying the longest path of dependent tasks Answer: B Explanation: Critical chain adds buffers to account for resource constraints and uncertainties. Question 54. Which of the following is a typical output of “Validate Scope”? A) Change requests B) Accepted deliverables C) Updated risk register D) Resource calendar Answer: B
