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Question 1. Which psychological perspective emphasizes the role of neurotransmitters and brain structures in behavior? A) Humanistic B) Cognitive C) Biological D) Sociocultural Answer: C Explanation: The biological perspective focuses on physiological bases of behavior, including neural activity and genetics. Question 2. Who is most closely associated with the development of the hierarchy of needs? A) Sigmund Freud B) B.F. Skinner C) Abraham Maslow D) Carl Rogers Answer: C Explanation: Maslow proposed a five-level hierarchy ranging from physiological needs to self-actualization. Question 3. In the scientific method, the variable that the researcher manipulates is the: A) Dependent variable B) Control variable C) Independent variable D) Confounding variable Answer: C Explanation: The independent variable is the factor deliberately changed to observe its effect on the dependent variable.
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Question 4. Which principle requires that participants be fully informed about the nature of a study before agreeing to take part? A) Debriefing B) Confidentiality C) Informed consent D) Random assignment Answer: C Explanation: Informed consent ensures participants understand the study’s purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits. Question 5. A researcher who observes children’s playground interactions without intervening is using which research design? A) Case study B) Naturalistic observation C) Survey D) Laboratory experiment Answer: B Explanation: Naturalistic observation records behavior in its natural setting without manipulation. Question 6. The part of the central nervous system that connects the brain to the spinal cord is the: A) Cerebellum B) Corpus callosum C) Brainstem D) Thalamus Answer: C Explanation: The brainstem (midbrain, pons, medulla) links the brain with the spinal cord and controls basic life functions.
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Question 10. According to Piaget, which stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly and hypothetically? A) Sensorimotor B) Preoperational C) Concrete-operational D) Formal-operational Answer: D Explanation: Formal-operational children (≈11 years onward) can engage in abstract reasoning and systematic problem solving. Question 11. In attachment theory, a caregiver who is consistently responsive and supportive fosters a child’s: A) Insecure-avoidant attachment B) Insecure-ambivalent attachment C) Disorganized attachment D) Secure attachment Answer: D Explanation: Secure attachment results from reliable caregiving, leading to confidence in exploring the environment. Question 12. Erik Erikson’s psychosocial crisis for adolescents is: A) Trust vs. Mistrust B) Autonomy vs. Shame/Doubt C) Initiative vs. Guilt D) Identity vs. Role Confusion Answer: D Explanation: Adolescents grapple with developing a coherent sense of self versus confusion about personal direction.
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Question 13. Kohlberg’s highest stage of moral development is: A) Preconventional B) Conventional C) Postconventional D) Unconventional Answer: C Explanation: Postconventional morality involves abstract principles such as justice and human rights beyond societal rules. Question 14. The absolute threshold refers to: A) The minimum intensity of a stimulus that can be detected 50% of the time B) The point at which a stimulus becomes painful C) The level at which adaptation occurs D) The average intensity of a stimulus in a given environment Answer: A Explanation: An absolute threshold is the weakest stimulus detectable on half of the trials. Question 15. Which Gestalt principle explains why we tend to perceive a series of dots as a single line? A) Proximity B) Continuity C) Closure D) Similarity Answer: B Explanation: The principle of continuity leads us to see elements arranged in a line as part of a continuous pattern. Question 16. During which sleep stage are most vivid dreams experienced?
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A) Positive reinforcement B. Negative reinforcement C) Punishment D) Extinction Answer: C Explanation: Punishment (positive or negative) reduces the probability that a behavior will be repeated. Question 20. Which schedule of reinforcement provides reinforcement after a fixed number of responses? A) Fixed-ratio B) Variable-ratio C) Fixed-interval D) Variable-interval Answer: A Explanation: Fixed-ratio schedules deliver a reward after a set count of correct responses (e.g., every 5th press). Question 21. Bandura’s Bobo doll experiment demonstrated the importance of: A) Classical conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Observational learning D) Insight learning Answer: C Explanation: Children imitated aggressive behavior after observing a model, showing that learning can occur by watching others. Question 22. The “tip-of-the-tongue” phenomenon is an example of a failure in: A) Encoding
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B) Storage C) Retrieval D) Consolidation Answer: C Explanation: The information is stored but temporarily inaccessible, reflecting a retrieval block. Question 23. Which problem-solving strategy involves trying possible solutions until one works? A) Algorithm B) Heuristic C) Insight D) Trial-and-error Answer: D Explanation: Trial-and-error systematically tests options without a predetermined rule. Question 24. According to the drive-reduction theory, hunger is best described as a: A) Primary drive B) Secondary drive C) Incentive D) Homeostatic set point Answer: A Explanation: Hunger is a physiological (primary) drive that motivates behavior to restore energy balance. Question 25. The James-Lange theory of emotion proposes that: A) Emotion and physiological arousal occur simultaneously B) Physiological arousal precedes the experience of emotion
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C) Common underlying factors across people D) Unique, idiographic traits of the individual Answer: D Explanation: Allport distinguished between common traits and personal, unique traits that define each person. Question 29. The primary purpose of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test is to: A) Diagnose personality disorders B) Measure academic achievement C) Assess fluid and crystallized intelligence D) Determine emotional stability Answer: C Explanation: The Stanford-Binet evaluates both fluid reasoning and acquired knowledge (crystallized intelligence). Question 30. Which DSM-5 category includes disorders characterized by persistent anxiety and excessive worry? A) Mood disorders B) Anxiety disorders C) Psychotic disorders D) Neurodevelopmental disorders Answer: B Explanation: Anxiety disorders encompass conditions such as Generalized Anxiety Disorder, where worry is pervasive. Question 31. The “fight-or-flight” response is mediated mainly by the: A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Sympathetic nervous system C) Somatic nervous system
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D) Limbic system Answer: B Explanation: The sympathetic branch prepares the body for rapid action by increasing heart rate and blood flow. Question 32. Which research method is most appropriate for studying rare phenomena like a specific phobia? A) Survey B) Experimental lab study C) Case study D) Correlational study Answer: C Explanation: Case studies allow in-depth examination of unique or rare conditions that are difficult to sample broadly. Question 33. The principle of “least effort” in perception refers to: A) The tendency to fill in missing information B) The preference for the simplest possible interpretation of sensory input C) The ability to detect faint stimuli at the edge of perception D) The adaptation of sensory receptors over time Answer: B Explanation: Gestalt’s law of simplicity (pragnanz) suggests the brain favors the most straightforward organization. Question 34. Which endocrine gland secretes melatonin, influencing sleep–wake cycles? A) Pineal gland B) Pituitary gland C) Adrenal cortex
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Explanation: The hippocampus consolidates information from short-term to long-term declarative memory. Question 38. The “halo effect” is an example of: A) Attribution bias B) Social facilitation C) Cognitive dissonance D) Stereotype threat Answer: A Explanation: The halo effect is a perceptual bias where one positive trait influences overall judgment of a person. Question 39. Which type of reinforcement schedule typically produces the highest, most steady rate of responding? A) Fixed-interval B) Variable-interval C) Fixed-ratio D) Variable-ratio Answer: D Explanation: Variable-ratio schedules (e.g., gambling) provide reinforcement after an unpredictable number of responses, leading to high, persistent behavior. Question 40. The process by which a conditioned response diminishes after repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus is called: A) Spontaneous recovery B) Generalization C) Extinction D) Discrimination
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Answer: C Explanation: Extinction weakens the learned association when the CS no longer predicts the US. Question 41. In an experiment investigating the effect of sleep deprivation on memory, the researcher randomly assigns participants to “sleep” or “no-sleep” groups. This random assignment helps control for: A) Independent variable B) Dependent variable C) Confounding variables D. Placebo effect Answer: C Explanation: Random assignment reduces systematic differences (confounds) between groups, increasing internal validity. Question 42. Which of the following best illustrates a “self-fulfilling prophecy” in social psychology? A) Stereotype threat causing reduced test performance B) Confirmation bias leading to selective evidence gathering C) Groupthink suppressing dissenting opinions D) Bystander diffusion of responsibility Answer: A Explanation: Stereotype threat is a self-fulfilling prophecy where fear of confirming a negative stereotype impairs performance. Question 43. The “central route” to persuasion, according to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, relies on: A) Emotional appeals B) Credibility of the source C) Logical argument and thoughtful processing
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Answer: B Explanation: The placebo effect occurs when belief in treatment efficacy leads to perceived or actual improvement. Question 47. Which of the following best defines “operant conditioning”? A) Learning through association of two stimuli B) Learning through observation of others C) Learning based on consequences of behavior D) Learning through insight and sudden reorganization Answer: C Explanation: Operant conditioning involves strengthening or weakening behavior via reinforcement or punishment. Question 48. The “fundamental attribution error” refers to the tendency to: A) Overestimate situational factors when explaining others’ behavior B) Underestimate situational factors and overemphasize personality traits in others C) Attribute one’s own successes to internal factors D) Attribute one’s own failures to external factors Answer: B Explanation: People often neglect situational influences on others, attributing actions to stable dispositions. Question 49. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism and energy expenditure? A) Insulin B) Thyroxine (T4) C) Cortisol D) Progesterone Answer: B
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Explanation: Thyroid hormones (T4/T3) increase basal metabolic rate and influence growth. Question 50. In a double-blind study, who is unaware of the experimental conditions? A) Only the participants B) Only the researchers administering the treatment C) Both participants and researchers collecting data D) Neither participants nor researchers are blinded Answer: C Explanation: Double-blinding prevents bias by keeping both subjects and experimenters unaware of group assignments. Question 51. The “cocktail party effect” demonstrates which aspect of attention? A) Divided attention across multiple stimuli B) Selective attention to a single, meaningful stimulus among many C) Sustained attention over long periods D) Inattentional blindness to unexpected objects Answer: B Explanation: People can focus on a single conversation despite background noise, illustrating selective auditory attention. Question 52. Which part of the peripheral nervous system controls voluntary skeletal muscle movement? A) Autonomic nervous system B) Somatic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D. Parasympathetic nervous system Answer: B
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Explanation: Ease of recall biases judgments about likelihood, often overestimating vivid or recent events. Question 56. Which brain structure is most closely linked to the processing of fear? A) Hippocampus B) Amygdala C) Thalamus D) Basal ganglia Answer: B Explanation: The amygdala detects threats and orchestrates fear responses. Question 57. In operant conditioning, a stimulus that removes an aversive condition, thereby increasing a behavior, is called: A) Positive reinforcement B) Negative reinforcement C) Positive punishment D) Negative punishment Answer: B Explanation: Negative reinforcement strengthens behavior by eliminating an unpleasant stimulus. Question 58. The “Miller’s magic number” suggests that short-term memory can hold approximately: A) 4±1 items B) 7±2 items C) 10±2 items D) 12±3 items Answer: B
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Explanation: George Miller proposed that the capacity of working memory is about seven items, give or take two. Question 59. Which of the following best describes “cognitive dissonance”? A) The tendency to attribute one’s own behavior to external factors B) The discomfort experienced when holding two contradictory beliefs C) The inability to recall information under stress D) The process of encoding information into long-term memory Answer: B Explanation: Cognitive dissonance occurs when attitudes and behaviors are inconsistent, prompting an effort to reduce the tension. Question 60. The “placebo” in a clinical trial is: A) An active drug with known effects B) A substance with no therapeutic effect used as a control C) The group that receives the experimental treatment D. A method of random assignment Answer: B Explanation: Placebos are inert treatments that help control for expectation effects. Question 61. Which personality assessment uses ambiguous images to elicit projections of the respondent’s inner world? A) MMPI B) Rorschach Inkblot Test C) NEO-PI-R D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory- 2 Answer: B Explanation: The Rorschach test presents inkblots and interprets the subject’s responses as projective data.
