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Question 1. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications? A) Physical B) Data Link C) Session D) Presentation Answer: C Explanation: The Session layer (Layer 5) controls dialogues (sessions) between applications, handling establishment, maintenance, and termination. Question 2. In the TCP/IP model, which layer combines the functions of the OSI Transport and Session layers? A) Network B) Internet C) Transport D) Application Answer: D Explanation: The TCP/IP Application layer encompasses OSI’s Application, Presentation, and Session layers, providing end-user services. Question 3. What PDU is used at the Data Link layer? A) Segment B) Frame C) Packet D) Bit Answer: B Explanation: The Data Link layer formats data into frames, adding MAC addresses and error-checking information. Question 4. Which of the following topologies provides a dedicated point-to-point link between each device and a central hub? A) Bus B) Ring
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C) Star D) Mesh Answer: C Explanation: In a star topology, every node connects directly to a central hub or switch, simplifying troubleshooting and isolation. Question 5. Which logical topology is used by Ethernet when using a switch? A) Broadcast B) Point-to-point C) Token ring D) Mesh Answer: B Explanation: Switches create separate point-to-point links between the switch port and each attached device, reducing collisions. Question 6. Which network type typically covers a geographical area larger than a city but smaller than a continent? A) LAN B) MAN C) WAN D) PAN Answer: B Explanation: A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) spans a city or campus, bridging multiple LANs. Question 7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Software-Defined WAN (SD-WAN)? A) Uses only MPLS circuits B) Centralized control plane separate from data plane C) Requires proprietary hardware at every branch D) Operates only over fiber-optic links Answer: B
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Question 11. Which cabling standard supports up to 10 Gbps over copper for distances up to 100 m? A) Cat 5e B) Cat 6a C) Cat 3 D) Cat 7 Answer: B Explanation: Category 6a (augmented) is rated for 10 Gbps up to 100 m, whereas Cat 5e is limited to 1 Gbps. Question 12. Which termination standard places the orange pair on pins 1- 2 and the green pair on pins 3-6? A) TIA/EIA-568A B) TIA/EIA-568B C) ISO/IEC 11801 D) IEEE 802.3af Answer: A Explanation: In T568A, the orange pair is on pins 1-2 and the green pair on pins 3 - 6; T568B swaps orange and green. Question 13. What is the primary purpose of a media converter? A) To increase bandwidth of a copper link B) To convert electrical signals to optical signals and vice versa C) To aggregate multiple VLANs into one D) To provide PoE to non-PoE devices Answer: B Explanation: Media converters translate between different media types, such as copper Ethernet and fiber optics. Question 14. Which IPv4 address class provides the largest number of host addresses per network? A) Class A B) Class B
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C) Class C D) Class D Answer: A Explanation: Class A networks have a 8-bit network portion and a 24-bit host portion, allowing ~16 million hosts per network. Question 15. In CIDR notation, what does the “/24” indicate? A) 24 bits for the host portion B) 24 bits for the network portion C) 24 usable IP addresses D) Subnet mask 255.255.255. Answer: B Explanation: “/24” means the first 24 bits are the network prefix; the corresponding subnet mask is 255.255.255.0. Question 16. Which IPv6 address type is automatically assigned to every interface on an IPv6-enabled node? A) Global Unicast B) Link-Local C) Unique Local D) Multicast Answer: B Explanation: Link-Local addresses (fe80::/10) are mandatory on all IPv interfaces for local-network communication. Question 17. Which protocol provides automatic IP address assignment to hosts? A) DNS B) DHCP C) NTP D) SNMP Answer: B
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A) FTP
B) TFTP
C) SFTP
D) HTTP
Answer: C Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) runs over SSH, encrypting both commands and data. Question 22. Which of the following protocols operates at the network layer? A) TCP B) UDP C) ICMP D) HTTP Answer: C Explanation: ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network-layer protocol used for error messages and diagnostics. Question 23. Which DNS record type maps an IPv6 address to a hostname? A) A B) AAAA C) CNAME D) MX Answer: B Explanation: AAAA records store IPv6 addresses, analogous to A records for IPv4. Question 24. What does the DHCP option “67” specify? A) DHCP server identifier B) Bootfile name for PXE clients C) Default gateway D) DNS server list Answer: B
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Explanation: Option 67 provides the bootfile name used by PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) clients during network boot. Question 25. Which NTP mode is used for client-to-server synchronization? A) Symmetric active B) Symmetric passive C) Client-server D) Broadcast Answer: C Explanation: Mode 3 (client-server) is the standard mode where a client requests time from a server. Question 26. Which SNMP version provides authentication and encryption? A) v B) v2c C) v D) v Answer: C Explanation: SNMPv3 adds USM (User-based Security Model) with authentication and privacy (encryption). Question 27. In a three-tier network design, which layer is primarily responsible for routing between distribution switches? A) Access B) Core C) Distribution D) Edge Answer: B Explanation: The Core layer provides high-speed backbone routing, connecting distribution layers and handling large volumes of traffic. Question 28. Which term describes traffic that moves between data-center servers?
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D) Repeater Answer: B Explanation: A multilayer (Layer 3) switch can route IP traffic while still providing traditional Layer 2 switching functions. Question 32. Which device is primarily used to convert digital signals to analog for transmission over telephone lines? A) Router B) Switch C) Modem D) Bridge Answer: C Explanation: A modem (modulator-demodulator) translates between digital data and analog signals for PSTN communication. Question 33. Which routing protocol uses the DUAL algorithm to calculate loop-free paths? A) RIP B) OSPF C) EIGRP D) BGP Answer: C Explanation: EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) employs the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) for fast convergence and loop-free routes. Question 34. Which routing protocol is classified as a link-state protocol? A) RIP B) OSPF C) EIGRP D) RIPv Answer: B Explanation: OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state protocol that builds a complete topology map of the network area.
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Question 35. Which protocol is used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the Internet? A) OSPF B) EIGRP C) BGP D) IS-IS Answer: C Explanation: BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is the exterior gateway protocol used for inter-AS routing on the global Internet. Question 36. Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) uses the virtual MAC address 00- 00 - 0C- 07 - AC-01? A) HSRP B) VRRP C) GLBP D) CARP Answer: A Explanation: HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) defines a virtual MAC address beginning with 00- 00 - 0C- 07 - AC-01 for the active router. Question 37. Which QoS mechanism classifies and marks traffic for priority handling? A) Policing B) Shaping C) Classification D) Queuing Answer: C Explanation: Classification identifies traffic types (e.g., VoIP, video) and applies markings (DSCP/802.1p) for downstream QoS actions. Question 38. Which IEEE 802.1Q tag field identifies the VLAN ID? A) Priority Code Point (PCP)
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Question 42. Which PoE standard supplies up to 30 W per port? A) 802.3af B 802.3at C) 802.3bt Type 1 D) 802.3bt Type 2 Answer: B Explanation: IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) delivers up to 30 W, while 802.3af (PoE) provides up to 15.4 W. Question 43. Which Wi-Fi standard operates in the 6 GHz band and is known as Wi-Fi 6E? A) 802.11ac B) 802.11ax C) 802.11ad D) 802.11ax (6 GHz) Answer: D Explanation: 802.11ax extended to the 6 GHz spectrum is marketed as Wi-Fi 6E, offering additional channels and reduced interference. Question 44. Which security protocol replaces WEP and provides AES encryption in WPA2? A) TKIP B) WPA-PSK C) CCMP D) WPS Answer: C Explanation: CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) uses AES for robust encryption in WPA2. Question 45. Which authentication protocol uses a central RADIUS server to validate wireless clients? A) PAP
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B) CHAP
C) 802.1X
D) LDAP
Answer: C Explanation: 802.1X provides port-based network access control, commonly using RADIUS as the backend authentication server. Question 46. Which wireless channel width provides the highest data rate in 802.11ac? A) 20 MHz B) 40 MHz C) 80 MHz D) 160 MHz Answer: D Explanation: 160 MHz channel width in 802.11ac (and 802.11ax) yields the maximum theoretical throughput. Question 47. Which of the following is a benefit of using a UPS in a data-center? A) Increases network bandwidth B) Provides temporary power during outages C) Eliminates the need for cooling D) Converts fiber to copper signals Answer: B Explanation: An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) supplies backup power, allowing graceful shutdown or transition to generator power. Question 48. Which cable type is required for installations in a plenum space to meet fire-code requirements? A) PVC-rated twisted pair B) CM-shielded twisted pair C) Plenum-rated (CMP) twisted pair D) Outdoor-rated (OU) twisted pair
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Question 52. Which command displays the routing table on a Linux system? A) ipconfig /display B) route print C) netstat -r D) show ip route Answer: C Explanation: “netstat -r” (or “ip route”) lists the kernel routing table on Linux/Unix. Question 53. Which tool captures live network traffic for analysis? A) ping B) traceroute C) Wireshark D) ipconfig Answer: C Explanation: Wireshark is a packet analyzer that records and displays packet headers and payloads for troubleshooting. Question 54. Which command can be used to view the ARP cache on a Windows machine? A) arp -a B) ipconfig /displaydns C) netstat -e D) route print Answer: A Explanation: “arp -a” lists the IP-to-MAC address mappings stored in the ARP cache. Question 55. Which of the following is a common cause of a “broadcast storm” on a LAN? A) Duplicate IP addresses B) Misconfigured spanning-tree leading to loops C) DHCP exhaustion
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D) Incorrect subnet mask Answer: B Explanation: A Layer 2 loop without proper STP causes frames to circulate indefinitely, creating a broadcast storm. Question 56. Which protocol is most commonly used to discover devices and services on a local network? A) SNMP B) LLDP C) DHCP D) NTP Answer: B Explanation: LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol) advertises device capabilities and neighbor information on Ethernet. Question 57. Which ACL type can filter traffic based on source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols? A) Standard B) Extended C) Named D) Dynamic Answer: B Explanation: Extended ACLs allow matching on both source/destination IPs, ports, and protocol numbers, providing granular control. **Question 58. Which authentication protocol transmits passwords in clear text? ** A) CHAP B) EAP-TLS C) PAP D) MS-CHAPv Answer: C Explanation: PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) sends credentials unencrypted, making it insecure.
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B) IPsec ESP C) SSH D) HTTPS Answer: B Explanation: IPsec ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encrypts IP packets, securing data at the network layer. **Question 63. Which VPN protocol uses UDP port 500 for initial IKE negotiations? ** A) PPTP B) L2TP/IPsec C) SSL VPN D) OpenVPN Answer: B Explanation: L2TP/IPsec (and pure IPsec) use UDP port 500 for IKE (Internet Key Exchange) phase-1 negotiations. Question 64. Which remote-desktop protocol uses port 3389 by default? A) VNC B) RDP C) SSH D) Telnet Answer: B Explanation: Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) listens on TCP port 3389. Question 65. Which physical security control would best prevent unauthorized personnel from entering a server room? A) CCTV cameras B) Biometric fingerprint scanner C) Fire suppression system D) UPS battery backup Answer: B
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Explanation: Biometric authentication provides strong access control, ensuring only authorized individuals can enter. Question 66. Which log management practice helps in meeting compliance requirements? A) Deleting logs after 30 days B) Storing logs on the same server as the application C) Centralizing logs with proper retention policies D) Encrypting logs with a weak cipher Answer: C Explanation: Centralized log collection with defined retention periods supports auditability and compliance. Question 67. Which metric measures the time it takes for a packet to travel from source to destination? A) Jitter B) Latency C) Throughput D) Utilization Answer: B Explanation: Latency is the delay between sending a packet and its receipt, typically measured in milliseconds. Question 68. Which tool provides flow-based traffic statistics such as bytes per second per conversation? A) Netstat B) Wireshark C) NetFlow collector D) Ping Answer: C Explanation: NetFlow (or sFlow) exporters send flow records to a collector, which aggregates traffic statistics.
