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Designed for developers building solutions on the Sitecore Content Hub platform. It assesses skills in Content Hub APIs, scripting with Action Scripts, custom connectors, entity modeling, schema extensions, automation, workflows, and integration with external systems. Exam scenarios include creating custom content models, designing automated processes, and implementing advanced API-driven interactions.
Typology: Exams
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Question 1. Which object provides access to entity CRUD operations in a Content Hub script? A) M.Query B) M.Notification C) M.Entities D) M.Upload Answer: C Explanation: The M.Entities client is used to create, read, update, and delete entities from scripts. Question 2. In a many-to-many relation, which cardinality is stored on each side of the relation? A) One-to-one B) One-to-many C) Many-to-one D) Many-to-many Answer: D Explanation: A many-to-many relation allows multiple instances on both sides, so each side records a many cardinality. Question 3. Which of the following is not a valid Content Hub property type for an entity definition? A) Text B) DateTime C) Binary D) Currency Answer: D Explanation: Currency is not a native property type; you would use a Decimal or Number type instead.
Question 4. When should you use a Taxonomy instead of an Option List? A) When values are static and never change B) When you need hierarchical classification C) When you need numeric IDs only D) When you want a single-value field Answer: B Explanation: Taxonomies support hierarchical structures, whereas Option Lists are flat collections. Question 5. Which lifecycle status indicates an asset is ready for publishing? A) Draft B) Pending Review C) Approved D) Archived Answer: C Explanation: The Approved status signifies the asset has passed review and can be published. Question 6. In the UI, which component is responsible for rendering the list of search facets? A) Asset Detail component B) Search component C) Breadcrumb component D) Header component Answer: B Explanation: The Search component includes facet configuration for filtering results. Question 7. To change the visual theme of a Content Hub site, you must modify which object?
B) POST /api/entities/search C) PUT /api/entities/{id} D) DELETE /api/entities/{id} Answer: A Explanation: A GET request to /api/entities/{id} returns the entity with the specified identifier. Question 11. When migrating assets via Excel, which column must contain the Asset ID to update an existing asset? A) Title B) FilePath C) AssetId D) Owner Answer: C Explanation: The AssetId column maps rows to existing assets for updates. Question 12. Which Media Profile setting controls the maximum bitrate of a video rendition? A) Width B) Height C) Bitrate D) Codec Answer: C Explanation: Bitrate defines the data rate, limiting the size and quality of the video output. Question 13. In the generated metadata JSON, which top-level node stores the asset’s custom fields? A) system B) properties
C) metadata D) extensions Answer: C Explanation: The metadata node contains custom fields defined on the asset. Question 14. Which permission type is required to edit a taxonomy’s terms? A) View B) Create C) Manage D) Delete Answer: C Explanation: Manage permission allows users to add, edit, or remove taxonomy terms. Question 15. Which authentication method allows users to log in with Azure AD? A) Local authentication B) LDAP authentication C) SAML authentication D) OAuth2 authentication Answer: D Explanation: OAuth2 can be configured to use Azure AD as an external identity provider. Question 16. A DRM right profile that allows download but not stream is an example of: A) Exclusive right B) Conditional right C) Partial right D) Revoked right
Explanation: The Sort field specifies the attribute and direction for default sorting. Question 20. Which script type runs once after a user successfully registers? A) Pre-registration script B) Post-registration script C) Sign-in script D) Shared script Answer: B Explanation: Post-registration scripts execute after the registration process completes. Question 21. The Option List feature is best used for which scenario? A) Representing a product category hierarchy B) Storing a static list of countries C) Defining a free-form text field D) Managing multi-language translations Answer: B Explanation: Option Lists are ideal for flat, static collections like country codes. Question 22. Which of the following is a valid cardinality for a one-to-many relation? A) 1: B) 1:N C) N:M D) M:N Answer: B Explanation: 1:N denotes one entity related to many others.
Question 23. To add a custom Import Excel button on a page, which UI element must be edited? A) Page Header B) Operation Buttons collection C) Footer Scripts D) Theme Config Answer: B Explanation: The Operation Buttons collection defines custom actions like “Import Excel”. Question 24. Which client should be used to upload a binary file from a script? A) M.Entities B) M.Query C) M.Upload D) M.Notification Answer: C Explanation: M.Upload handles file uploads and returns the resulting asset ID. Question 25. In a script, the Context object provides access to which of the following? A) Current user, request, and logger B) Database connection only C) External API tokens only D) UI component tree Answer: A Explanation: Context includes user information, request data, and logging utilities.
Question 29. In the Mass Edit UI, which script type can be used to customize the field transformation logic? A) Action script B) Metadata processing script C) Shared script D) Pre-registration script Answer: B Explanation: Metadata processing scripts run during mass edit to transform field values. Question 30. Which of these is a background execution trigger type? A) In-process Trigger B) Synchronous Trigger C) Async Trigger D) Background Trigger Answer: D Explanation: Background Trigger runs scripts outside the request thread, enabling long-running tasks. Question 31. When defining a relation, what does the Delete Cascade option control? A) Whether related entities are also deleted B) Whether the relation can be edited C) Whether the relation is visible in UI D) Whether the relation is indexed Answer: A Explanation: Delete Cascade determines if deleting one side also removes linked entities.
Question 32. Which component is used to display detailed metadata on an asset’s detail page? A) Search component B) Asset Detail component C) Facet component D) Breadcrumb component Answer: B Explanation: The Asset Detail component renders fields and metadata for a selected asset. Question 33. Which REST endpoint returns a paginated list of entities matching a query? A) GET /api/entities/{id} B) POST /api/entities/search C) PUT /api/entities/{id} D) DELETE /api/entities/search Answer: B Explanation: POST /api/entities/search accepts a query payload and returns paginated results. Question 34. Which of the following is not a built-in Media Processing profile type? A) Thumbnail B) Transcode C) Watermark D) Compression Answer: D Explanation: Compression is a setting within a profile, not a distinct profile type.
Question 38. Which of the following actions can be performed by an Action script? A) Modify entity metadata B) Render UI components C) Authenticate users D) Generate CSS Answer: A Explanation: Action scripts are invoked by triggers to perform operations such as metadata changes. Question 39. What is the default visibility scope for a newly created page in Content Hub? A) Private (only admins) B) Public (all users) C) Hidden (no one) D) Draft (only creators) Answer: B Explanation: New pages are public by default unless explicitly restricted. Question 40. Which of the following is a required field when creating a new taxonomy? A) Description B) Parent term C) Name D) Icon Answer: C Explanation: Name is mandatory; other fields are optional. Question 41. Which script execution type is appropriate for a long-running import that should not block the UI?
A) In-process B) Background C) Immediate D) Synchronous Answer: B Explanation: Background execution runs the script asynchronously, keeping the UI responsive. Question 42. In the REST API, which HTTP status code indicates a successful creation of an entity? A) 200 OK B) 201 Created C) 202 Accepted D) 204 No Content Answer: B Explanation: 201 Created signals that a new resource has been successfully created. Question 43. Which component lets users filter search results by a custom taxonomy? A) Search bar B) Facet panel C) Result grid D) Header menu Answer: B Explanation: The Facet panel displays taxonomy-based filters. Question 44. Which permission is needed to assign a user to a group? A) View Users B) Manage Users
Answer: C Explanation: Reusable entity definitions promote consistency and reduce duplication. Question 48. In a mass edit operation, which script is executed once per batch rather than per entity? A) Pre-edit script B) Post-edit script C) Batch script D) Entity script Answer: C Explanation: A Batch script runs once for the whole batch, allowing aggregate logic. Question 49. Which REST endpoint is used to download the binary file of an asset? A) GET /api/assets/{id}/download B) GET /api/assets/{id}/file C) POST /api/assets/{id}/download D) PUT /api/assets/{id}/file Answer: A Explanation: The /download endpoint streams the asset’s binary content. Question 50. Which UI element can be used to override the default view of search results? A) Result template selector B) Facet configuration C) Pagination control D) Header logo
Answer: A Explanation: The Result template selector lets developers choose a custom view for results. Question 51. Which of the following is a valid property type for storing a list of values? A) Text B) Number C) Multi-select D) Date Answer: C Explanation: Multi-select allows multiple values to be stored in a single property. Question 52. When configuring a conditional rule, what does the Apply Any scope mean? A) All conditions must be true B) At least one condition must be true C) No conditions are evaluated D) Conditions are ignored Answer: B Explanation: Apply Any triggers the rule when any one of the listed conditions is satisfied. Question 53. Which client provides methods to create and manage notifications such as alerts and emails? A) M.Query B) M.Notification C) M.Entities D) M.Upload
Answer: C Explanation: Sign-in scripts execute prior to authentication, enabling custom checks. Question 57. Which REST response header indicates the total number of results for a paginated query? A) X-Total-Count B] Content-Length C) X-Result-Size D) X-Pagination-Total Answer: A Explanation: X-Total-Count conveys the total result count across all pages. Question 58. In a workflow, which state typically represents a finalized asset that can no longer be edited? A) Draft B) Review C) Published D) Archived Answer: D Explanation: Archived is the terminal state where assets are locked from further changes. Question 59. Which of the following is not a built-in Media Rendition type? A) Preview B) Thumbnail C) FullResolution D) Watermark Answer: D
Explanation: Watermark is a processing step, not a distinct rendition type. Question 60. Which permission is required to create a new entity definition? A) View Entity Definitions B) Edit Entity Definitions C) Create Entity Definitions D) Manage System Answer: C Explanation: Create Entity Definitions specifically allows the creation of new schemas. Question 61. Which client is used to execute OData queries against the Content Hub repository? A) M.Query B) M.Entities C) M.Notification D) M.Upload Answer: A Explanation: M.Query supports OData-style queries for flexible data retrieval. Question 62. When adding a custom facet, which property of a taxonomy must be set to true? A) IsSearchable B) IsFacetable C) IsHierarchical D) IsVisible Answer: B Explanation: IsFacetable enables the taxonomy to be used as a facet in search.