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Question 1. Which component of a CNC lathe primarily houses the spindle and provides the driving power to the workpiece? A) Tailstock B) Bed C) Headstock D) Turret Answer: C Explanation: The headstock contains the spindle, bearings, and motor that rotate the workpiece. Question 2. In lathe axis nomenclature, the X-axis controls which of the following movements? A) Lengthwise motion of the tool B) Radial (diameter) movement of the tool C) Rotation of the spindle D) Live tooling rotation Answer: B Explanation: The X-axis on a lathe moves the tool cutter radially, changing the part’s diameter. Question 3. Which work-holding device is best suited for holding a small, irregularly shaped part that requires a custom grip? A) Three-jaw chuck B) Collet chuck C) Soft jaw on a chuck D) Faceplate Answer: C Explanation: Soft jaws can be machined to match the contour of irregular parts, providing a secure grip. Question 4. The most critical personal protective equipment (PPE) for protecting eyes from metal chips during turning is:
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A) Ear plugs B) Safety glasses with side shields C) Steel-toe boots D) Respirator Answer: B Explanation: Safety glasses with side shields prevent chips from entering the eyes, a primary hazard in turning. Question 5. Which machine guarding feature automatically stops the spindle when the guard is opened? A) Emergency stop (E-stop) button B) Interlock switch C) Lexan shielding D) Light curtain Answer: B Explanation: An interlock detects guard opening and sends a signal to stop spindle rotation for safety. Question 6. During daily maintenance, the primary purpose of lubricating the ways is to: A) Reduce coolant consumption B) Prevent rust and reduce friction on sliding surfaces C) Increase spindle speed D) Clean chips from the workpiece Answer: B Explanation: Way lubrication minimizes wear and friction on the sliding surfaces of the lathe bed. Question 7. In a drawing’s title block, the revision block is used to: A) Indicate material grade B) Record the part’s weight C) Track changes made to the drawing after its initial release
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Explanation: RPM = (SFM × 4) / Diameter (in inches) converts surface feet per minute to revolutions per minute. Question 11. If a lathe tool feed is set to 0.015 IPR, how many inches will the tool advance after 20 revolutions? A) 0.30 in B) 0.75 in C) 0.15 in D) 0.45 in Answer: A Explanation: Feed = IPR × revolutions → 0.015 × 20 = 0.30 in. Question 12. The tangent point of a chamfer on a 0.500-in diameter cylinder with a 0.020-in chamfer height lies at what radius from the cylinder center? A) 0.240 in B) 0.260 in C) 0.280 in D) 0.300 in Answer: B Explanation: Radius = (Diameter/2) – Chamfer height = 0.250 – 0.020 = 0.230 in; the tangent point is at radius 0.230 in plus half the chamfer width (often equal to height for 45°), giving 0.260 in. Question 13. Converting 25 mm to inches (1 in = 25.4 mm) yields: A) 0.985 in B) 1.015 in C) 0.950 in D) 1.050 in Answer: A Explanation: 25 mm ÷ 25.4 mm/in ≈ 0.984 in, rounded to 0.985 in.
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Question 14. Which insert geometry is most appropriate for high-speed roughing of stainless steel? A) CNMG (round) B) WNMG (square) C) DNMG (diamond) D) TNMG (triangle) Answer: B Explanation: WNMG inserts have a larger chip-breaker groove, ideal for high-speed roughing of tough materials like stainless steel. Question 15. Carbide tooling is preferred over HSS for which of the following reasons? A) Lower cost B) Better wear resistance at high cutting speeds C) Greater flexibility in low-speed operations D) Easier to sharpen manually Answer: B Explanation: Carbide retains hardness at higher temperatures, allowing higher cutting speeds and longer tool life compared with HSS. Question 16. When machining aluminum, which chip breaker design helps prevent long, continuous chips? A) Deep, sharp V-groove B) Small, rounded chip breaker C) Straight rake with no breaker D) Large, aggressive macro-chip breaker Answer: B Explanation: A small, rounded chip breaker gently curls aluminum chips, preventing them from becoming long and tangled. Question 17. Tool length offset (G43) is required when: A) Changing the spindle direction
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Answer: B Explanation: G02 commands clockwise (right-hand) circular motion in the programmed plane. Question 21. To program a parting operation that cuts a 0.015-in deep groove at a 90° angle, which G-code combination is most appropriate? A) G01 X… Z… M B) G71 R… C) G76 P… Q… D) G Answer: A Explanation: Linear interpolation (G01) with appropriate X and Z coordinates creates a straight, perpendicular cut for parting. Question 22. Cutter radius compensation to the left of the tool path is invoked with which code? A) G B) G C) G D) G Answer: B Explanation: G41 activates cutter radius compensation to the left of the programmed path. Question 23. The G71 cycle is primarily used for: A) Finishing pass B) Rough turning of cylindrical parts C) Threading D) Facing Answer: B Explanation: G71 performs rough turning cycles, removing bulk material before a finishing pass.
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Question 24. Which M-code stops spindle rotation while leaving coolant on? A) M B) M C) M D) M Answer: A Explanation: M05 stops the spindle; coolant state is controlled separately by M08/M09. Question 25. To start the spindle clockwise at 1500 RPM, the correct code is: A) M03 S B) M04 S C) M03 S1500 R D) M04 S1500 R Answer: A Explanation: M03 commands clockwise rotation; S specifies spindle speed. Question 26. In a facing operation, which axis movement primarily reduces the part’s length? A) X-axis B) Z-axis C) C-axis D) Y-axis Answer: B Explanation: The Z-axis moves the tool along the part’s longitudinal axis, reducing length during facing. Question 27. When performing a multi-start thread, the lead is: A) Equal to the pitch B) Pitch multiplied by the number of starts
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Explanation: An incorrect work offset shifts the datum, causing a uniform dimensional offset across the part. Question 31. The primary function of a tailstock on a CNC lathe is to: A) Hold the cutting tool B) Support the free end of long workpieces during turning C) Rotate the spindle D) Provide coolant flow Answer: B Explanation: The tailstock provides a steady point of support for the opposite end of the workpiece, preventing deflection. Question 32. Which axis is added when a lathe is equipped with live tooling capable of rotating the tool? A) A-axis B) B-axis C) C-axis D) D-axis Answer: C Explanation: The C-axis rotates the live tool about the spindle axis, enabling milling operations on a lathe. Question 33. When selecting a collet chuck for a 0.250-in diameter bar, which size collet should be used? A) 0.200 in B) 0.250 in C) 0.300 in D) 0.500 in Answer: B Explanation: A collet matches the exact nominal diameter of the bar to provide uniform clamping force.
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Question 34. The purpose of a faceplate on a lathe is to: A) Hold a workpiece that cannot be clamped by a chuck B) Increase spindle speed C) Provide coolant delivery D) Adjust tool length Answer: A Explanation: A faceplate offers a mounting surface for irregular or large parts that cannot be held by a chuck. Question 35. Which GD&T symbol indicates that a feature’s axis must be coaxial with a datum axis within a tolerance? A) Position (⌖) B) Concentricity (○) C) Parallelism (∥) D) Perpendicularity (⊥) Answer: B Explanation: The concentricity symbol ensures the axis of a cylindrical feature aligns with a datum axis within the specified tolerance. Question 36. A surface roughness requirement of 32 μin Ra is equivalent to approximately: A) Ra 0.8 μm B) Ra 1.6 μm C) Ra 2.5 μm D) Ra 4.0 μm Answer: B Explanation: 1 μin ≈ 0.0254 μm; 32 μin × 0.0254 ≈ 0.8128 μm, which rounds to Ra ≈ 0.8 μm (option A). Correction: The correct conversion yields Ra ≈ 0.8 μm, so answer A. (The exam expects recognition of conversion.) Question 37. To compute feed per minute (FPM) from IPR and RPM, the formula is: A) FPM = IPR ÷ RPM
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Answer: A Explanation: “T” specifies the tool number and the associated offset (e.g., T = tool 1, offset 1). Question 41. Which coolant mode is typically used for high-speed carbide turning to improve chip evacuation? A) Flood coolant (M08) B) Mist coolant (M09) C) Dry turning (no coolant) D) Oil mist (M08) Answer: A Explanation: Flood coolant provides abundant cooling and chip removal, essential for high-speed carbide cutting. Question 42. When machining a 0.500-in diameter part to a final tolerance of ±0.001 in, which measurement instrument provides the required precision? A) Digital caliper (0.001 in resolution) B) Micrometer (0.0001 in resolution) C) Ruler D) Tape measure Answer: B Explanation: A micrometer’s 0.0001 in resolution comfortably meets the ±0.001 in tolerance. Question 43. A tool breakage that consistently occurs at the same location on the workpiece most likely indicates: A) Incorrect spindle speed B) Insufficient coolant C) Tool over-hang or insufficient tool holder rigidity D) Excessive feed rate Answer: C
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Explanation: Tool over-hang creates a cantilever effect, concentrating stress at a specific point leading to repeatable breakage. Question 44. Which G-code is used for thread cutting on a lathe? A) G B) G C) G D) G Answer: C Explanation: G76 performs a threading cycle, controlling depth of cut, pitch, and lead-in/out. Question 45. The term “peck drilling” on a lathe refers to: A) Using a high feed rate to finish a hole quickly B) Repeatedly retracting the drill to clear chips and reduce heat C) Drilling with a tapered drill bit D) Using coolant to “peck” the workpiece surface Answer: B Explanation: Peck drilling cycles withdraw the drill periodically to evacuate chips and prevent overheating. Question 46. In a CNC lathe, the “C” axis is most commonly used for: A) Rotating the spindle B) Tilting the tool holder C) Rotating a live-tool for milling operations D) Moving the tailstock longitudinally Answer: C Explanation: The C-axis rotates live tooling, enabling milling or drilling on a lathe. Question 47. Which insert grade is optimized for high-speed machining of aluminum alloys?
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Answer: B Explanation: HSS is tougher and less brittle than carbide, making it more forgiving for roughing soft, ductile materials. Question 51. A lathe operator notices a “chirping” noise during a finish pass. The most probable cause is: A) Too low spindle speed B) Excessive feed rate causing vibration C) Insufficient coolant flow D) Tool nose radius too large Answer: B Explanation: Excessive feed can excite vibration, producing a chirping sound during finishing. Question 52. In a turning operation, which parameter directly influences the generated chip thickness? A) Spindle speed (RPM) B) Feed per rev (IPR) C) Tool nose radius D) Coolant pressure Answer: B Explanation: Chip thickness is proportional to the feed per revolution; higher IPR yields thicker chips. Question 53. The “G90” modal code on a CNC lathe sets the machine to: A) Incremental (relative) positioning B) Absolute positioning C) Polar coordinate mode D) Threading mode Answer: B Explanation: G90 selects absolute coordinate mode, where all positions are referenced from the datum.
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Question 54. Which of the following is the correct way to program a 0.5-in diameter part to be turned down to 0.480 in using a single linear move? A) G01 X0. B) G01 Z0. C) G01 X-0. D) G01 Z-0. Answer: A Explanation: X controls diameter; moving to X = 0.480 reduces the part’s diameter to that size. Question 55. When using a three-jaw chuck, the most common source of out-of-roundness is: A) Unequal jaw pressure B) Incorrect spindle speed C) Too much coolant D) Excessive feed rate Answer: A Explanation: Three-jaw chucks self-center but can introduce eccentricity if jaw pressures are uneven. Question 56. The primary purpose of a “runout” gauge on a lathe is to measure: A) Surface roughness B) Axial displacement of the spindle C) Radial deviation of the workpiece or tool from true rotation D) Thread pitch accuracy Answer: C Explanation: Runout gauges detect wobble or eccentricity in rotating components. Question 57. In a CNC lathe, the “M08” code activates:
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D) Depth of cut Answer: B Explanation: D-words store cutter radius compensation values; D02 selects the second offset. Question 61. When performing a facing operation, the tool should be positioned at which Z coordinate before the rapid traverse? A) Positive Z, near the spindle nose B) Negative Z, beyond the part length C) Zero Z, at the datum D) Any Z, as it does not affect facing Answer: B Explanation: For facing, the tool starts beyond the part end (negative Z) and then traverses rapidly to the start of the face. Question 62. Which of the following best describes “thermal expansion” as a source of dimensional drift in turning? A) Change in tool geometry due to heat B) Workpiece length increasing with temperature, altering measured dimensions C) Coolant cooling the spindle, causing speed variation D) Ambient temperature affecting operator perception Answer: B Explanation: As the workpiece heats, it expands, causing measured dimensions to drift from the intended size. Question 63. In a CNC lathe, the “G54” work offset is stored in which part of the controller? A. Tool length offset table B. Work coordinate system table C. Macro program memory D. Spindle speed register Answer: B
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Explanation: G54-G59 are work coordinate systems stored in the controller’s offset table. Question 64. Which type of chip breaker is most effective for machining titanium alloys? A. Deep V-groove B. Small rounded breaker C. Large macro-chip breaker D. No chip breaker (smooth rake) Answer: C Explanation: Titanium produces long, gummy chips; a large macro-chip breaker helps break them into manageable pieces. Question 65. The purpose of “G70” in a turning program is to: A. Perform a roughing cycle B. Perform a finishing cycle after a roughing pass C. Create a thread profile D. Cancel all offsets Answer: B Explanation: G70 executes a finishing pass using the same tool path as the preceding roughing cycle. Question 66. When a lathe’s coolant flow is set too low for a high-speed carbide cut, the likely result is: A. Reduced chip formation B. Increased tool wear due to overheating C. Better surface finish D. Lower spindle load Answer: B Explanation: Insufficient coolant leads to higher cutting temperatures, accelerating carbide wear.
