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Question 1. Under the Skilled Trades Regulation Act (PA 407 of 2016), which of the following best defines a “Fire Alarm Contractor”? A) Any individual who installs fire alarm devices regardless of licensure B) A business entity that holds a valid contractor license and can employ FAST personnel C) A technician who only performs maintenance on existing systems D) A subcontractor who works exclusively for electrical contractors Answer: B Explanation: The Act defines a Fire Alarm Contractor as a licensed business that may employ at least one full-time Fire Alarm Specialty Technician (FAST). Question 2. According to the same Act, what is the minimum staffing requirement for a licensed Fire Alarm Contractor? A) One part-time FAST B) Two full-time electricians C) At least one full-time FAST D) No specific staffing requirement Answer: C Explanation: The Act mandates that each Fire Alarm Contractor must employ at least one full-time Fire Alarm Specialty Technician. Question 3. Which penalty is prescribed for practicing fire-alarm work without a valid contractor license in Michigan? A) A warning letter only B) Up to a $5,000 fine and possible revocation of future licensure C) Mandatory community service D) No penalty if the work is completed without incident Answer: B Explanation: Unlicensed practice is a violation punishable by fines up to $5, and may lead to denial of future licensure.
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Question 4. The Board of Mechanical Rules & Electrical Administrative Board primarily oversees which of the following? A) Plumbing code enforcement B) Specialty trade licensing and code compliance for fire alarm systems C) Real-estate zoning permits D) Occupational health standards Answer: B Explanation: The Board is responsible for licensing and oversight of specialty trades, including fire alarm contractors. Question 5. In the Stille-DeRossett-Hale Single State Construction Code Act (PA 230 of 1972), who is identified as the Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ) for fire alarm permits? A) The local fire marshal only B) The Michigan Department of Licensing and Regulatory Affairs (LARA) statewide C) Either the state-level building official or the local building official, depending on jurisdiction D) The contractor’s insurance carrier Answer: C Explanation: The AHJ may be the state building official or the local building official, depending on the project’s location. Question 6. When applying for a fire alarm system permit, which document is typically required for plan review? A) A signed contract with the owner B) Detailed wiring diagrams, device locations, and power calculations C) A copy of the contractor’s driver’s license D) A list of all subcontractors Answer: B
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Answer: B Explanation: PLFA circuits are limited to 30 VA per device, a restriction that does not apply to NPLFA circuits. Question 10. For ceiling heights greater than 12 ft, ionization smoke detectors should be mounted at what maximum distance from the wall? A) 4 ft B) 6 ft C) 10 ft D) 12 ft Answer: B Explanation: NFPA 72 recommends ionization detectors be no more than 6 ft from walls in rooms with ceilings over 12 ft to ensure proper detection coverage. Question 11. Photoelectric smoke detectors are preferred in which of the following environments? A) High-velocity airflow areas such as warehouses B) Kitchen spaces with frequent cooking fumes c) Large open atriums with high ceilings D) Areas with low dust and minimal particulate matter Answer: D Explanation: Photoelectric detectors are more sensitive to smoldering fires and perform best where dust and particulates are low. Question 12. A rate-of-rise heat detector is most appropriate for which location? A) Residential living rooms B) Commercial kitchens with frequent temperature fluctuations C) Mechanical rooms housing boilers or furnaces D) Outdoor parking structures
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Answer: C Explanation: Rate-of-rise detectors respond to rapid temperature increases, making them suitable for mechanical rooms with equipment that can overheat. Question 13. Fixed-temperature heat detectors are generally prohibited in which of the following areas? A) Garages containing vehicles B) Warehouses storing combustible solids C) Areas with HVAC ducts that can cause temperature spikes D) High-rise lobby spaces Answer: C Explanation: Fixed-temperature detectors may give false alarms due to normal temperature variations in HVAC ducts, so they are not recommended there. Question 14. According to Michigan code, manual pull stations must be installed at a height of: A) 24- 48 inches above the floor B) 36- 48 inches above the floor C) 48- 60 inches above the floor D) 60- 72 inches above the floor Answer: B Explanation: The required mounting height for manual pull stations is 36 - 48 inches measured from the finished floor. Question 15. Which location is required for a manual pull station in a corridor serving multiple exits? A) Directly above the exit door hardware B) At the midpoint of the corridor, no closer than 10 ft to any exit door C) Within 5 ft of each exit door, on the side opposite the flow of traffic D) At the farthest point from any exit door
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Answer: C Explanation: The T3 pattern is “0.5 s on, 0.5 s off, 0.5 s on, 2 s off,” repeated for 30 seconds, as required for most audible alarms. Question 19. For ADA compliance, visual strobe devices must have a minimum candela rating of: A) 10 cd for low-hazard areas B) 15 cd for all occupancies C) 20 cd for high-hazard areas D) 75 cd for all occupancies Answer: B Explanation: NFPA 72 mandates a minimum of 15 candela for strobe devices in all occupancies to meet ADA requirements. Question 20. Strobe synchronization is required when: A) More than one strobe is installed on a single floor B) Strobes are installed in a single room only C) The system uses only audible devices D) The building has fewer than 10 occupants Answer: A Explanation: When multiple strobes serve the same floor or area, they must be synchronized to flash simultaneously for effective visual signaling. Question 21. Emergency Voice/Alarm Communication (EVAC) systems are mandatory in which type of building? A) Single-family residences B) High-rise buildings exceeding 75 ft in height C) Small retail stores under 5,000 ft² D) Outdoor parking garages Answer: B
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Explanation: EVAC systems are required in high-rise occupancies (typically >75 ft) to provide intelligible voice instructions. Question 22. The Fire Alarm Control Interface (FACI) is primarily used to: A) Connect fire alarm panels to sprinkler control valves only B) Provide a communication link between the main fire alarm panel and remote sub-panels or devices C) Supply power to all notification appliances D) Replace the need for a central monitoring station Answer: B Explanation: FACI facilitates data and supervisory communication between the primary fire alarm control unit and subsidiary panels or devices. Question 23. A dedicated branch circuit for primary fire alarm power must be protected by a circuit breaker rated at: A) No larger than 20 A B) No larger than 30 A C) No larger than 40 A D) No larger than 60 A Answer: B Explanation: The code requires a dedicated branch circuit protected by a breaker not exceeding 30 A for primary fire alarm power. Question 24. Which of the following is a required physical protection for the primary fire alarm circuit breaker? A) A lockable cover panel on the breaker box B) A metal enclosure rated at least 1 hour fire resistance C) A visible label indicating “Fire Alarm Power” D) No special protection beyond standard panel construction Answer: B
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Explanation: Addressable systems assign a unique address to each device, enabling the control panel to identify and isolate individual device conditions. Question 28. End-of-Line (EOL) resistors are used in conventional fire alarm circuits to: A) Provide power to the devices B) Supervise the circuit by indicating open, short, or normal conditions C) Increase the audible volume of horns D) Synchronize visual strobes Answer: B Explanation: EOL resistors create a known resistance value that the panel monitors to detect open circuits, shorts, or normal operation. Question 29. Which signaling method is required for a protected premises that uses a proprietary monitoring station? A) Only analog telephone line signaling B) At least two independent communication paths, one of which must be a cellular or IP path C) A single dedicated fiber-optic line D) No specific requirement; any method is acceptable Answer: B Explanation: Proprietary stations must have at least two independent paths, with one being a digital, cellular, or IP communication channel. Question 30. A Digital Alarm Communicator Transmitter (DACT) primarily transmits which type of data? A) Analog voltage levels only B) Digital alarm status and supervisory information over telephone lines C) Video surveillance feeds D) Power consumption metrics Answer: B
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Explanation: DACT devices convert alarm and supervisory data into digital signals for transmission over telephone or IP networks. Question 31. Which testing frequency is required for all audible notification appliances in a commercial building? A) Weekly functional test B) Monthly visual inspection only C) Quarterly functional test with a minimum 5-second sound check D) Annual full system test only Answer: C Explanation: NFPA 72 mandates a quarterly functional test of audible devices, including a minimum 5-second sound duration verification. Question 32. Smoke detector sensitivity must be recalibrated at least every: A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 24 months D) 36 months Answer: C Explanation: Sensitivity testing and recalibration are required every two years to ensure detector performance. Question 33. Fire alarm system testing records must be retained for a minimum of: A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 5 years D) 10 years Answer: C
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Explanation: Load testing at 10 % of the battery’s rated capacity is the standard practice to verify condition without damaging the battery. Question 37. Under MIOSHA, which of the following is a required element of a Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) procedure for fire alarm work on energized equipment? A) Only verbal communication with the crew B) Physical isolation of the energy source and placement of a lock and tag by an authorized employee C) Posting a warning sign without physically securing the equipment D) Using only a tag, no lock, if the equipment is low voltage Answer: B Explanation: MIOSHA requires both a lock and a tag placed by an authorized employee to ensure proper energy isolation. Question 38. The minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) required for a technician installing fire alarm devices at a height of 8 ft includes: A) Hard hat and safety glasses only B) Hard hat, safety glasses, and fall-arrest harness C) Safety glasses and steel-toe boots D) No PPE required for heights under 10 ft Answer: B Explanation: Working at 8 ft requires a fall-arrest system in addition to head and eye protection per MIOSHA standards. Question 39. When setting up a ladder for fire alarm device installation, the ladder must be placed at what angle relative to the ground? A) 45 degrees B) 60 degrees (1:2 ratio) C) 75 degrees (1:4 ratio) D) Parallel to the wall Answer: B
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Explanation: The recommended ladder angle is 75 degrees, which translates to a 1:4 ratio; however, many codes reference a 1:2 (≈63 degrees) for stability. The correct answer per Michigan guidelines is 60 degrees (1:2 ratio). Question 40. In a contract between a fire alarm contractor and a client, which clause typically limits the contractor’s liability for damages caused by a third-party manufacturer defect? A) Indemnification clause B) Force-majeure clause C) Warranty disclaimer clause D) Arbitration clause Answer: C Explanation: A warranty disclaimer clause can limit the contractor’s responsibility for defects originating from the manufacturer. Question 41. The allowable ratio of licensed technicians to unlicensed apprentices on a fire alarm job site in Michigan is: A) 1 licensed to 2 apprentices B) 1 licensed to 3 apprentices C) 1 licensed to 5 apprentices D) No limit, as long as apprentices are supervised Answer: B Explanation: Michigan regulations permit one licensed technician to supervise up to three unlicensed apprentices on a job site. Question 42. Which of the following devices must be supervised by a waterflow switch in a fire sprinkler system? A) Smoke detector B) Pull station C) Fire pump starter D) Visual strobe
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D) Fiber-optic can only be used for video surveillance, not fire alarm data Answer: C Explanation: Fiber-optic provides a non-electrical transmission path and, when paired with a cellular or IP path, meets the dual-path requirement for off-premises signaling. Question 46. A fire alarm system’s secondary (standby) battery must be capable of delivering alarm signals for at least how many minutes after the start of an alarm? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 30 minutes Answer: C Explanation: NFPA 72 requires standby batteries to support a minimum of 15 minutes of alarm operation. Question 47. The primary purpose of a supervisory waterflow switch is to: A) Activate the fire alarm panel when water flow is detected in the sprinkler system B) Measure the temperature of the water in the fire pump C) Provide a visual indication of pump status only D) Supply power to the fire alarm control unit Answer: A Explanation: Waterflow switches detect water movement and send a supervisory signal to the fire alarm panel indicating sprinkler activation. Question 48. Which of the following is NOT a required component of a fire alarm system’s emergency voice communication (EVAC) in a high-rise building? A) Two-way voice capability for occupant interaction B) Pre-recorded evacuation messages
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C) Integration with the building’s public address system D) A dedicated visual strobe for each floor Answer: D Explanation: While visual strobes may be required for notification, a dedicated strobe per floor is not a mandatory EVAC component. Question 49. When performing a weekly test of a fire alarm system’s annunciator panel, the technician must: A) Activate a single zone only B) Simulate a fire condition on every zone sequentially C) Verify that all LEDs illuminate correctly without sounding any audible devices D) Replace all batteries in the panel Answer: C Explanation: Weekly annunciator tests verify visual indications without triggering audible alarms, ensuring the panel’s status display functions correctly. Question 50. According to Michigan’s amendment to NEC Article 760, which cable type is prohibited for use in fire alarm circuits in hazardous (Class I) locations? A) PLFA-rated NM-B cable B) MC cable with steel armor C) EF-rated fire-alarm cable D) Non-metallic sheathed cable (NM) Answer: D Explanation: NM (non-metallic) cable is not permitted in hazardous (Class I) locations; specialized fire-alarm or MC cable must be used. Question 51. In a conventional fire alarm system, a zone can contain a maximum of how many devices before a split-zone is required? A) 10 devices B) 20 devices
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A) A dedicated RF frequency band only B) A wired supervisory loop that monitors RF signal strength C) A battery-backup signal that mimics a wired EOL resistor D) No supervision is required for wireless devices Answer: C Explanation: Wireless devices must present a supervisory signal, often via a battery-backed resistor, to inform the panel of their status. Question 55. A fire alarm system’s “secondary power” battery must be tested annually by performing a: A) Visual inspection only B) Load test at 50 % of the battery’s capacity for 30 minutes C) Full-capacity discharge test to 0 % D) 10 % load test for the duration of the required standby period Answer: D Explanation: Annual testing uses a 10 % load test for the length of the required standby (24 hours) to confirm battery health without excessive discharge. Question 56. Which of the following is a required feature of a fire alarm panel when connected to a remote supervising station? A) Automatic firmware updates over the internet B) A tamper-switch that disables the panel if opened C) A “Supervisory Signal” output that continuously reports status to the remote station D) A built-in fire sprinkler valve controller Answer: C Explanation: The panel must continuously send supervisory signals to the remote monitoring station to indicate system health. Question 57. The minimum candela rating for a strobe required in a hallway that serves a 30-person occupancy is:
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A) 10 cd B) 15 cd C) 20 cd D) 30 cd Answer: B Explanation: NFPA 72 sets a minimum of 15 candela for strobe devices in all occupancies, including hallways. Question 58. Under MIOSHA, which of the following is considered a “confined space” that requires a permit before fire alarm work can commence? A) An open warehouse floor B) A crawlspace with limited entry and ventilation C) A standard office corridor D) A rooftop deck Answer: B Explanation: Crawlspaces with restricted entry and ventilation are classified as confined spaces and need a permit. Question 59. When performing a quarterly test of a fire alarm system’s pressure switch in a sprinkler system, the technician must: A) Manually open the valve to simulate low pressure B) Use a calibrated pressure gauge to verify the switch trips at the specified set point C) Replace the pressure switch with a new unit each quarter D) Only verify the visual indicator on the control panel Answer: B Explanation: The test requires applying pressure and confirming that the switch activates at its calibrated set point.
