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Question 1. What does the NIST definition identify as the primary benefit of cloud computing’s “on-demand self-service”? A) Reduced need for physical data centers B) Users can provision resources automatically without provider interaction C) Guaranteed unlimited storage capacity D) Automatic compliance with all regulations Answer: B Explanation: On-demand self-service lets users request compute, storage, or network resources automatically, without needing a human from the provider.
Question 2. Which of the following best illustrates “broad network access” as defined by NIST? A) Access only through a proprietary desktop client B) Availability of services via standard devices such as smartphones and laptops over the Internet C) Services limited to a single geographic region D) Exclusive use of a private WAN for all traffic Answer: B Explanation: Broad network access means cloud services are reachable from any standard device over the network using standard protocols.
Question 3. In the context of cloud computing, the term “resource pooling” refers to: A) Storing all data in a single physical server B) Sharing a common set of physical and virtual resources among multiple customers
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C) Providing each customer a dedicated hardware rack D) Using only open-source software in the infrastructure Answer: B Explanation: Resource pooling aggregates computing resources to serve many tenants, allowing multi-tenancy and efficient utilization.
Question 4. Rapid elasticity is most important for which type of workload? A) Static archival storage with predictable usage B) Seasonal e-commerce traffic spikes C) Long-running batch jobs with constant demand D) Internal HR applications with steady daily use Answer: B Explanation: Rapid elasticity enables quick scaling up and down, ideal for workloads with variable demand such as seasonal traffic.
Question 5. Which characteristic of cloud computing ensures that usage can be measured, monitored, and billed automatically? A) On-demand self-service B) Measured service C) Broad network access D) Multi-tenancy Answer: B Explanation: Measured service provides metering of resource consumption for transparent billing and optimization.
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C) SaaS D) CaaS (Container as a Service) Answer: C Explanation: SaaS delivers fully functional applications over the Internet without the user managing any underlying resources.
Question 9. In the shared responsibility model for IaaS, which of the following is the customer's responsibility? A) Physical security of data center facilities B) Patch management of the guest operating system C) Hypervisor updates D) Underlying network infrastructure maintenance Answer: B Explanation: In IaaS, the provider secures the physical infrastructure and hypervisor, while the customer manages the OS and applications.
Question 10. Which deployment model provides computing resources exclusively to a single organization, either on-premises or hosted by a third party? A) Public cloud B) Private cloud C) Hybrid cloud D) Community cloud Answer: B Explanation: Private clouds are dedicated to one organization, offering greater control and isolation.
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Question 11. A “community cloud” is most appropriate for which scenario? A) A multinational corporation needing global reach B) Several hospitals sharing a common compliance framework for patient data C) A startup requiring rapid scaling without upfront investment D) An individual developer testing a personal project Answer: B Explanation: Community clouds are shared among organizations with common concerns such as compliance or security.
Question 12. Which of the following best describes a “type-1 hypervisor”? A) Runs on top of a host operating system like a regular application B) Installed directly on hardware, providing higher performance and isolation C) Requires a separate license for each virtual machine D) Only supports Windows guest operating systems Answer: B Explanation: Type-1 (bare-metal) hypervisors run directly on physical hardware, offering better performance and security.
Question 13. In server virtualization, the term “overcommitment” refers to: A) Allocating more virtual CPUs than physical CPUs available B) Restricting each VM to a single core C) Using only physical servers for each workload
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Question 16. Which statement differentiates a container from a virtual machine? A) Containers require a full guest operating system per instance B) Containers share the host OS kernel, resulting in lower overhead C) VMs can run on any hardware without a hypervisor D) Containers cannot be orchestrated across multiple hosts Answer: B Explanation: Containers share the host OS kernel, making them lightweight compared to VMs that each have a full OS.
Question 17. What is the primary billing model for most public cloud services? A) Flat-rate annual subscription B) Pay-as-you-go consumption-based pricing C) License per user per month D) Up-front capital purchase of hardware Answer: B Explanation: Public clouds typically charge based on actual resource consumption, enabling flexible cost management.
Question 18. Which cloud characteristic most directly enables “time-to-market” acceleration for developers? A) Measured service B) Rapid elasticity C) Broad network access
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D) On-demand self-service Answer: D Explanation: On-demand self-service lets developers instantly provision needed resources, shortening development cycles.
Question 19. In a hybrid cloud architecture, which component typically handles workload bursting to the public cloud? A) On-premises firewall only B) Cloud management platform or orchestrator C) Physical storage array D) End-user web browser Answer: B Explanation: Orchestration tools manage workload distribution and can automatically burst to the public cloud when demand spikes.
Question 20. Which of the following is NOT a typical benefit of moving from CapEx to OpEx in cloud adoption? A) Predictable monthly cash flow B) Reduced need for large upfront hardware purchases C) Immediate ownership of physical servers D) Ability to scale costs with usage Answer: C Explanation: OpEx replaces capital purchases; ownership of physical servers is a CapEx scenario.
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B) Measured service C) Rapid elasticity D) Resource pooling Answer: C Explanation: Rapid elasticity describes the automatic scaling of resources to match demand.
Question 24. A developer wants to test a new microservice without provisioning a full VM. Which technology is most suitable? A) Bare-metal server B) Docker container C) Traditional hypervisor VM D) Physical appliance Answer: B Explanation: Containers like Docker provide lightweight, isolated environments ideal for microservice testing.
Question 25. Which cloud deployment model is often used to meet data residency requirements while still leveraging public-cloud scalability? A) Public cloud only B) Private cloud only C) Hybrid cloud D) Community cloud Answer: C Explanation: Hybrid clouds allow sensitive data to remain in a private environment while using public resources for other workloads.
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Question 26. In a PaaS offering, who is typically responsible for database patching and upgrades? A) The end-user application developer B. The cloud provider C. The operating system vendor D. The network administrator at the customer site Answer: B Explanation: PaaS providers manage the underlying platform, including database maintenance.
Question 27. Which of the following is a key security advantage of a private cloud over a public cloud? A) Automatic global CDN distribution B) Complete isolation from other tenants C) Unlimited on-demand scaling D) Zero management overhead Answer: B Explanation: Private clouds provide dedicated resources, reducing exposure to other tenants’ workloads.
Question 28. The term “elastic load balancer” in cloud environments primarily provides: A) Permanent static IP addresses
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Explanation: Reserved instances require a commitment (often 1-3 years) and provide lower per-hour rates.
Question 31. Which of the following best describes “serverless computing” (FaaS) in relation to the SPI model? A) It is a subset of IaaS that provides raw compute only B) It abstracts both servers and runtime, allowing developers to upload functions that run on demand C) It is identical to PaaS but with added storage capabilities D) It requires the user to manage virtual machines directly Answer: B Explanation: Function-as-a-Service removes the need to manage servers or runtime environments, focusing only on code execution.
Question 32. What is the main purpose of a “virtual private cloud” (VPC) in a public cloud? A) To provide a completely isolated physical data center B) To create a logically isolated network segment within the public cloud C) To replace all on-premises networking equipment D) To host only public-facing web services Answer: B Explanation: A VPC gives customers a private, logically separated network inside a public cloud, with control over IP ranges, subnets, and security.
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Question 33. Which compliance framework is most commonly associated with handling credit-card data in the cloud? A) HIPAA B) GDPR C) PCI-DSS D) FISMA Answer: C Explanation: PCI-DSS sets security standards for processing, storing, and transmitting credit-card information.
Question 34. In the context of cloud economics, “economies of scale” refer to: A) Reduced costs per unit as the provider serves a larger number of customers B) Increased costs due to larger data volumes C) Fixed pricing regardless of usage D) Higher latency with more users Answer: A Explanation: Cloud providers can lower per-unit costs by spreading infrastructure expenses across many tenants.
Question 35. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a “cloud-native” architecture? A) Reliance on monolithic applications B) Tight coupling of components for faster performance C) Designed for elasticity, resilience, and automated management in cloud environments
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Question 38. In a virtualization environment, “live migration” enables: A) Moving a VM’s storage to a new disk without shutting it down B) Transferring a running VM from one host to another with no perceptible downtime C) Cloning a VM to create a backup image D) Automatically scaling CPU resources within a VM Answer: B Explanation: Live migration moves an active VM between physical hosts while keeping services available.
Question 39. Which of the following is an example of a “managed database service” in the cloud? A) Installing MySQL on a self-managed EC2 instance B) Using Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL C) Running a local SQLite file on a laptop D) Deploying a NoSQL database on a bare-metal server Answer: B Explanation: Managed database services like Amazon RDS handle provisioning, patching, backups, and scaling for the customer.
Question 40. Which metric is most directly used to implement the “measured service” characteristic? A) Number of users logged in per day B) CPU hours, storage gigabytes, and network bytes transferred
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C) Number of support tickets opened D) Physical rack space occupied Answer: B Explanation: Measured service relies on quantifiable usage data such as compute hours, storage, and bandwidth.
Question 41. A company wants to ensure that its cloud resources are only accessible from its corporate network. Which control should be applied? A) Public IP address assignment B) VPC peering with the corporate data center C) Open internet firewall rules D) Disabling all encryption Answer: B Explanation: VPC peering creates a private connection between the cloud VPC and the on-premises network, restricting access.
Question 42. Which of the following is a key difference between “public cloud” and “community cloud”? A) Public cloud is always free; community cloud is paid B) Community cloud is shared among organizations with common concerns, while public cloud is available to any customer C) Public cloud uses only proprietary hardware; community cloud uses open source only D) Community cloud cannot be accessed over the internet Answer: B
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Question 45. Which of the following best describes “edge computing” as it relates to cloud? A) Moving all processing to a single central data center B) Performing compute tasks close to the data source to reduce latency C) Replacing cloud services with on-premises servers only D. Storing data exclusively in long-term archival storage Answer: B Explanation: Edge computing brings computation nearer to devices or sensors, complementing cloud services by lowering latency.
Question 46. A “spot instance” is best suited for which type of workload? A) Mission-critical production databases requiring 99.99% uptime B) Fault-tolerant batch jobs that can be interrupted C) Real-time transaction processing D. Long-term virtual desktop infrastructure Answer: B Explanation: Spot instances are offered at discounted rates but can be reclaimed, making them ideal for interruptible workloads.
Question 47. Which of the following describes “data sovereignty” in cloud computing? A) Data stored in multiple regions for redundancy B) Legal requirements that data remains within specific geographic boundaries C) Automatic encryption of all data at rest D. Unlimited data transfer between clouds
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Answer: B Explanation: Data sovereignty concerns laws that mandate data be kept within certain jurisdictions.
Question 48. Which cloud service model would a developer choose to obtain a fully managed CI/CD pipeline without managing underlying servers? A) IaaS B) PaaS C) SaaS D) DaaS Answer: C Explanation: SaaS offerings like GitHub Actions or Azure DevOps provide managed CI/CD pipelines as a service.
Question 49. What is the primary purpose of a “service level agreement” (SLA) in cloud contracts? A) Define the price per GB of storage B) Outline the provider’s performance and availability commitments C) List the programming languages supported D) Specify the physical location of servers Answer: B Explanation: SLAs set measurable targets for uptime, response time, and remedies if they are not met.
