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Question 1.Which App Service plan type provides the most cost-effective scaling for a low-traffic web API that only needs to run during business hours? A) PremiumV B) Standard C) Basic D) Consumption Answer: C Explanation: The Basic tier offers manual scaling with a lower price point and is suitable for workloads that do not require the advanced features of Standard or Premium plans, making it ideal for low-traffic, scheduled workloads.
Question 2.When configuring a custom domain for an Azure App Service, which DNS record type must be created to verify domain ownership? A) CNAME B) TXT C) A D) MX Answer: B Explanation: Azure requires a TXT record containing a verification ID to confirm that you own the domain before it can be bound to the App Service.
Question 3.Which deployment slot configuration enables zero-downtime releases by swapping production with a staging environment?
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A) Slot-specific app settings only B) Auto-swap after each push C) Warm-up requests during swap D) Manual swap after testing Answer: D Explanation: Manual swap after validating the staging slot ensures the new version is fully tested before becoming live, providing zero-downtime releases.
Question 4.In Azure Functions, which hosting plan automatically scales to zero when no events are being processed? A) Dedicated (App Service) B) Premium C) Consumption D) Elastic Premium Answer: C Explanation: The Consumption plan bills per execution and automatically scales down to zero instances when there are no incoming events.
Question 5.Which trigger type is most appropriate for a function that processes new Blob storage uploads? A) Timer trigger B) HTTP trigger C) Event Grid trigger
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Explanation: The Premium SKU includes geo-replication, enabling faster image pulls from regions close to the deployment.
Question 8.Which Azure Container Instance (ACI) networking option allows a container group to be reachable only within a virtual network? A) Public IP address B) NAT gateway C) VNet integration D) Azure Load Balancer Answer: C Explanation: VNet integration assigns a private IP from the virtual network, restricting access to resources inside that VNet.
Question 9.KEDA in Azure Container Apps primarily provides what capability? A) Container image scanning B) Event-driven autoscaling C) Secret management D) Logging aggregation Answer: B Explanation: KEDA (Kubernetes Event-Driven Autoscaling) enables containers to scale based on external event sources such as queues or metrics.
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Question 10.Which AKS feature simplifies the management of TLS certificates for Ingress resources? A) Azure Key Vault integration B) Managed Identities C) Azure AD pod identity D) Azure AD RBAC Answer: A Explanation: AKS can integrate with Azure Key Vault to automatically provision and rotate TLS certificates for Ingress controllers.
Question 11.When choosing a Cosmos DB partition key, which characteristic is most important for ensuring even distribution? A) High cardinality and uniform access pattern B) Short string length C) Frequently updated values D) Fixed set of values Answer: A Explanation: High cardinality with uniform reads/writes prevents hot partitions and distributes load evenly across physical partitions.
Question 12.Which consistency level in Cosmos DB guarantees that reads never see stale data within the same session?
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D) Premium Answer: C Explanation: The Archive tier offers the lowest storage cost for infrequently accessed data, with higher retrieval latency, fitting compliance-driven retention.
Question 15.**When generating a Shared Access Signature (SAS) for a Blob container, which permission must be included to allow clients to upload new blobs? ** A) Read (r) B) Write (w) C) Delete (d) D) List (l) Answer: B Explanation: The Write permission grants the ability to create or update blobs within the container.
Question 16.Which Azure AD application registration setting defines the redirect URI for an OAuth2 authorization code flow? A) Identifier URIs B) Reply URLs C) Expose an API D) Required permissions
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Answer: B Explanation: Reply URLs (now called Redirect URIs) specify where Azure AD sends the authorization code after successful authentication.
Question 17.In the Microsoft Identity platform, which grant type is recommended for native mobile applications? A) Client credentials B) Authorization code with PKCE C) Implicit flow D) Resource owner password credentials Answer: B Explanation: The Authorization Code flow with Proof Key for Code Exchange (PKCE) enhances security for public clients like mobile apps.
Question 18.Which Azure service provides a centralized store for feature flags that can be consumed by multiple applications at runtime? A) Azure Key Vault B) Azure App Configuration C) Azure Monitor D) Azure Policy Answer: B Explanation: Azure App Configuration offers feature management capabilities, allowing apps to read feature flags dynamically.
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Question 21.What is the default eviction policy for Azure Cache for Redis when the maxmemory limit is reached? A) volatile-lru B) allkeys-lru C) volatile-ttl D) noeviction Answer: B Explanation: By default, Redis uses the allkeys-lru policy, evicting the least recently used keys regardless of expiration.
Question 22.Which CDN caching rule would you use to ensure that a specific image file is never cached at edge locations? A) Set a long max-age header B) Add a query string parameter C) Configure a “no-cache” directive in the response header D) Use a custom domain Answer: C Explanation: The “Cache-Control: no-cache” header instructs CDN nodes not to store the content.
Question 23.In Application Insights, which telemetry type captures the duration of a custom operation you define in code? A) Request
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B) Dependency C) Trace D) Custom event Answer: D Explanation: Custom events can include duration metrics, allowing you to track the time taken by a bespoke operation.
Question 24.Which Kusto Query Language (KQL) operator is used to summarize the count of failed requests per operation name? A) where B) summarize count() by operation_Name C) project D) extend Answer: B Explanation: The summarize operator aggregates data; summarize count() by operation_Name provides the count per operation.
Question 25.When configuring an Azure Monitor metric alert for CPU usage, which aggregation type should you select to trigger when the average CPU exceeds 80 % over 5 minutes? A) Maximum B) Minimum C) Average
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Explanation: Products bundle APIs together and control access, quotas, and rate limits for subscribers.
Question 28.Which Event Grid event type is emitted when a new blob is created in a storage account? A) Microsoft.Storage.BlobCreated B) Microsoft.Storage.BlobDeleted C) Microsoft.Storage.BlobRenamed D) Microsoft.Storage.BlobUpdated Answer: A Explanation: The Microsoft.Storage.BlobCreated event signals the creation of a new blob.
Question 29.What is the primary advantage of using Azure Event Hubs over Azure Service Bus for telemetry ingestion? A) Supports FIFO delivery B) Higher throughput and partitioned consumer model C) Built-in dead-letter queue D) Automatic message deduplication Answer: B Explanation: Event Hubs is designed for massive streaming workloads, offering high throughput and partitioned consumers.
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Question 30.Which Service Bus feature ensures that messages are delivered to each subscription in the order they were sent? A) Sessions B) Topics C) Auto-forwarding D) Duplicate detection Answer: A Explanation: Sessions enable ordered processing and stateful handling of related messages across a subscription.
Question 31.When using Azure Queue Storage, which property of a message determines its visibility after being retrieved? A) Time-to-live (TTL) B) Dequeue count C) Visibility timeout D) Message size Answer: C Explanation: The visibility timeout defines how long a retrieved message remains hidden from other consumers before becoming visible again.
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C) Event Hub D) DNS Answer: D Explanation: DNS is not a supported trigger type for Azure Functions.
Question 35.When deploying a container image to Azure Container Apps, which component defines the scaling behavior based on an external queue length? A) Ingress B) Dapr pub/sub component C) KEDA scaler D) Autoscale profile Answer: C Explanation: KEDA scalers can monitor external queues (e.g., Azure Queue Storage) and adjust replica count accordingly.
Question 36.Which Azure storage account kind provides the lowest latency for hot data accessed by virtual machines in the same region? A) General-purpose v2 (GPv2) B) Blob storage C) Premium SSD D) File storage Answer: C
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Explanation: Premium SSD storage accounts use locally redundant SSDs, delivering the lowest latency for hot data.
Question 37.In Cosmos DB, what does the “RU/s” metric represent? A) Read units per second, a measure of storage capacity B) Request units per second, a normalized throughput measure C) Replication units per second, for multi-region sync D) Resource utilization per second, for billing only Answer: B Explanation: Request Units per second (RU/s) abstract the cost of reads, writes, and queries, governing provisioned throughput.
Question 38.Which Azure AD role is required to create a new service principal for an application? A) Global Administrator B) Application Administrator C) User Administrator D) Billing Administrator Answer: B Explanation: The Application Administrator role can create and manage enterprise applications and their service principals.
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A) B) C) D) Answer: B Explanation: The `` policy can enforce size limits on request bodies.
Question 42.Which Azure Service Bus feature automatically moves messages that cannot be delivered after a certain number of attempts? A) Auto-delete on idle B) Duplicate detection C) Dead-letter queue D) Transfer dead-letter Answer: C Explanation: The dead-letter queue holds messages that exceed max delivery attempts or fail validation.
Question 43.When configuring Azure Event Grid to receive events from a custom topic, which authentication method is recommended? A) Shared Access Signature (SAS) B) Managed identity token C) Event Grid access key
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D) Azure AD OAuth Answer: D Explanation: Azure AD OAuth2 provides secure token-based authentication for custom topics, avoiding static keys.
Question 44.Which Azure function binding would you use to automatically write a message to a Service Bus queue after processing? A) Output binding to queue storage B) Output binding to Service Bus C) Input binding to Event Hub D) Input binding to Blob Answer: B Explanation: An output binding to Service Bus allows the function to send messages to a queue or topic without explicit SDK code.
Question 45.In Azure Container Registry, what is the purpose of a “Task”? A) To schedule container image builds and deployments automatically B) To monitor container health C) To enforce network policies D) To create virtual networks Answer: A
