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Question 1. Which installation option provides the smallest footprint and is managed primarily via PowerShell? A) Server Core B) Desktop Experience C) Nano Server D) Windows Server Essentials Answer: C Explanation: Nano Server is a head‑less, remotely managed deployment with the smallest disk and memory footprint. Question 2. When should you choose GPT over MBR for a new volume? A) When the volume size exceeds 2 TB B) When the volume will be used for legacy BIOS systems only C) When the volume is smaller than 500 GB D) When the volume will be formatted with FAT Answer: A Explanation: GPT supports volumes larger than 2 TB, whereas MBR is limited to 2 TB. Question 3. Which PowerShell cmdlet creates a new Storage Space pool? A) New‑VirtualDisk B) New‑StoragePool C) New‑PhysicalDisk D) New‑Disk Answer: B Explanation: New‑StoragePool aggregates physical disks into a pool for Storage Spaces. Question 4. What feature must be enabled to use data deduplication on a volume?
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A) ReFS file system B) NTFS file system C) Storage Spaces Direct D) Hyper‑V role Answer: B Explanation: Data deduplication is a feature of NTFS (and ReFS in later versions) and must be enabled on an NTFS volume. Question 5. Which Hyper‑V setting determines whether a VM can be moved live across hosts without shared storage? A) Enable‑Guest‑Service B) Enable‑Live‑Migration C) Enable‑Replication D) Enable‑Dynamic‑Memory Answer: B Explanation: Live migration allows moving a running VM between hosts, even without shared storage, when the setting is enabled. Question 6. What is the default virtual switch type created by Hyper‑V when you run New‑VirtualSwitch – Name "External"? A) Private B) Internal C) External D) Nat Answer: C Explanation: The -SwitchType External creates a virtual switch that bridges VM traffic to the physical network. Question 7. Which container type provides isolation using a separate kernel?
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D) Object‑level Answer: C Explanation: Storage Replica replicates entire volumes synchronously to ensure data consistency. Question 11. Which backup tool is included with Windows Server and can perform full, incremental, and differential backups? A) System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM) B) Windows Server Backup C) Azure Backup Server D) Backup Exec Answer: B Explanation: Windows Server Backup provides those backup types natively. Question 12. Which DNS record type maps a hostname to an IPv6 address? A) A B) AAAA C) CNAME D) PTR Answer: B Explanation: AAAA records store IPv6 address mappings. Question 13. In DNS, what is the purpose of a stub zone? A) To store all records for a domain locally B) To forward queries to authoritative servers for a specific zone C) To replicate DNS data across sites automatically D) To provide reverse‑lookup capabilities only Answer: B
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Explanation: A stub zone contains only NS records and forwards queries to the authoritative DNS servers. Question 14. Which DNSSEC component validates the authenticity of DNS responses? A) NSEC record B) DS record C) RRSIG record D) A record Answer: C Explanation: RRSIG signatures are used to verify DNSSEC‑signed records. Question 15. What is the default DHCP lease time for a Windows Server DHCP scope? A) 8 hours B) 1 day C) 1 week D) 2 weeks Answer: B Explanation: The default lease duration is 1 day (24 hours). Question 16. Which DHCP failover mode provides load balancing and automatic client failover? A) Active‑Standby B) Load‑Balance C) Hot‑Standby D) Split‑Scope Answer: B Explanation: Load‑Balance mode shares the address pool between two servers and balances client assignments.
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D) Authentication policy Answer: B Explanation: Network policies define conditions and permissions for VPN, wireless, and dial‑in connections. Question 21. What component of DFS provides a unified namespace for shared folders? A) DFS Replication B) DFS Namespace C) DFS Management Console D) DFSR Service Answer: B Explanation: DFS Namespace creates a virtual view that aggregates multiple shared folders. Question 22. Which DFS Replication schedule is recommended for a branch office with limited bandwidth? A) Continuous replication B) Replication every 15 minutes C) Replication during off‑peak hours only D) No replication, use manual copy Answer: C Explanation: Scheduling replication during low‑usage periods conserves bandwidth. Question 23. BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode stores data on which type of server? A) Domain controller B) File server acting as a hosted cache server C) DHCP server D) DNS server Answer: B
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Explanation: A designated hosted cache server stores content for remote branch clients. Question 24. Which SDN component provides centralized control of virtual networks in Windows Server? A) Hyper‑V Virtual Switch B) Network Controller C) Software Load Balancer D) Virtual NIC Answer: B Explanation: The Network Controller offers a REST API for managing virtual networking. Question 25. Hyper‑V Network Virtualization (HNV) enables which of the following? A) Physical NIC bonding B) Isolation of virtual networks independent of physical topology C) Direct access to physical network adapters from VMs D) Automatic IP address assignment for VMs Answer: B Explanation: HNV abstracts network addressing, allowing overlapping IP spaces across tenants. Question 26. Which role must be installed to create a new Active Directory forest? A) DNS Server B) DHCP Server C) Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) D) File Services Answer: C Explanation: AD DS provides the directory services required for a forest. Question 27. What is the purpose of a Read‑Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
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C) dcdiag.exe D) repadmin.exe Answer: B Explanation: rsop.msc displays the effective Group Policy settings for a user or computer. Question 31. Group Policy Preferences can be used to configure which of the following? A) Security filtering only B) Drive mappings, printers, and local users C) Only registry settings D) Only software installation Answer: B Explanation: Preferences extend GPOs to configure items like drives, printers, local accounts, etc. Question 32. Which command-line tool can import a GPO backup into a new domain? A) gpupdate B) import‑gpo.exe C) backup‑gpo.exe D) Import‑GPO (PowerShell) Answer: D Explanation: The PowerShell cmdlet Import‑GPO restores a GPO from a backup file. Question 33. A Certificate Authority (CA) that issues certificates to internal users but does not issue certificates to external partners is typically configured as which type? A) Enterprise Subordinate CA B) Stand‑alone Root CA C) Enterprise Root CA D) Offline Root CA Answer: A
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Explanation: An Enterprise Subordinate CA issues certificates within the AD‑integrated environment. Question 34. Which certificate template setting controls the allowed key usage (e.g., digital signature, key encipherment)? A) Subject Name B) Application Policies C) Key Usage D) Validity Period Answer: C Explanation: The Key Usage field defines permissible cryptographic operations for the certificate. Question 35. What is the purpose of the Certificate Revocation List (CRL)? A) To list all issued certificates B) To list certificates that are no longer trusted C) To provide a list of approved certificate templates D) To store private keys securely Answer: B Explanation: The CRL contains serial numbers of revoked certificates. Question 36. AD FS provides which primary capability? A) DNS name resolution B) Single Sign‑On (SSO) across federated trusts C) DHCP address allocation D) File replication Answer: B Explanation: AD FS enables SSO for users across separate security realms.
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B) Add‑DiskToPool C) Add‑StoragePoolDisk D) Add‑VirtualDisk Answer: A Explanation: Add‑PhysicalDisk incorporates a new disk into a storage pool. Question 41. What is the minimum number of nodes required to create a Windows Server Failover Cluster? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: B Explanation: At least two nodes are needed for failover capability. Question 42. Which cluster quorum configuration is best for an even number of nodes with a shared storage witness? A) Node Majority B) Node and Disk Majority C) Disk Only Answer: B Explanation: Node and Disk Majority uses both node votes and a disk witness, suitable for even‑node clusters. Question 43. In Hyper‑V, which virtual switch type allows VMs to communicate only with each other and the host? A) External B) Private C) Internal
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D) NAT
Answer: C Explanation: An Internal virtual switch provides connectivity between VMs and the host but not the external network. Question 44. What is the purpose of the Set‑VMProcessor PowerShell cmdlet? A) To assign memory to a VM B) To configure the number of virtual processors and compatibility settings C) To enable nested virtualization D) To set VM checkpoint settings Answer: B Explanation: Set‑VMProcessor modifies processor count and related options. Question 45. Which storage technology enables a cluster to use local disks on each node for highly available storage? A) Storage Spaces Direct (S2D) B) iSCSI Target Server C) SMB 3.0 File Share D) RAID 5 array Answer: A Explanation: S2D aggregates local disks across cluster nodes to provide resilient, shared storage. Question 46. Which command creates a new Docker container from an image named mcr.microsoft.com/windows/servercore? A) docker create servercore B) docker run - it mcr.microsoft.com/windows/servercore C) docker build servercore D) docker pull servercore Answer: B
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A) ipconfig /all B) netsh dhcp server show config C) dhcpcmd /display D) dhcpconfig /list Answer: B Explanation: netsh dhcp server show config displays server settings. Question 51. Which AD DS feature allows you to move a user’s mailbox to a different Exchange server without changing the user’s AD attributes? A) AD Recycle Bin B) AD Integrated DNS C) AD Connect D) Not an AD DS feature; this is an Exchange task Answer: D Explanation: Mailbox moves are handled by Exchange, not by AD DS. Question 52. Which PowerShell cmdlet creates a new AD user object? A) New‑ADUser B) Add‑ADUser C) New‑User D) Create‑ADAccount Answer: A Explanation: New‑ADUser creates a user in Active Directory. Question 53. What is the purpose of the Enable‑ADOptionalFeature – Identity “Recycle Bin Feature” cmdlet? A) To enable auditing of AD changes B) To enable the AD Recycle Bin feature
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C) To enable Kerberos pre‑authentication D) To enable AD schema updates Answer: B Explanation: This command turns on the Recycle Bin optional feature. Question 54. Which Group Policy setting disables the ability to change the system time on client computers? A) Computer Configuration → Windows Settings → Security Settings → Local Policies → User Rights Assignment → Change the system time B) Computer Configuration → Administrative Templates → System → Power Management C) User Configuration → Administrative Templates → System → Logon D) Computer Configuration → Windows Settings → Scripts (Startup/Shutdown) Answer: A Explanation: The “Change the system time” user right controls that permission. Question 55. Which AD DS attribute is used by Kerberos to locate a user’s domain controller? A) sAMAccountName B) userPrincipalName C) msDS-PrincipalName D) DNSHostName Answer: B Explanation: The UPN (userPrincipalName) includes the domain portion used by Kerberos. Question 56. Which command displays the current FSMO role holders? A) netdom query fsmo B) dcdiag /test:fsmo C) Get‑ADDomain – Identity | Select‑Object FSMOroleOwner D) netdom query /fsmo
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Question 60. Which command adds a new virtual hard disk (VHDX) file of 50 GB? A) New‑VHD – Path C:\VMs\Disk1.vhdx – SizeBytes 50GB – Dynamic B) New‑VHD – Location C:\VMs\Disk1.vhdx – Size 50GB – Fixed C) New‑VirtualDisk – Path C:\VMs\Disk1.vhdx – Size 50GB D) New‑VHD – Path C:\VMs\Disk1.vhdx – Size 50GB – Fixed Answer: A Explanation: New‑VHD with -SizeBytes 50GB - Dynamic creates a dynamically expanding VHDX. Question 61. Which feature must be enabled on a Windows Server to allow remote PowerShell management of a Nano Server? A) WinRM B) Remote Desktop Services C) SMB 1.0/CIFS File Sharing Support D) Telnet Server Answer: A Explanation: WinRM provides the remote management endpoint for Nano Server. Question 62. Which storage format does Storage Spaces Direct use for resiliency across nodes? A) RAID 0 B) RAID 1 C) Mirror‑Accelerated Parity (MAP) D) Simple Answer: C Explanation: MAP combines mirroring and parity to provide fault tolerance in S2D. Question 63. In a Hyper‑V environment, which setting enables a VM to access the host’s GPU for remote desktop scenarios?
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A) Discrete Device Assignment (DDA) B) Enhanced Session Mode C) RemoteFX vGPU D) GPU Passthrough Answer: C Explanation: RemoteFX vGPU allows virtual machines to share the host’s GPU. Question 64. Which command forces a Group Policy update on a client computer? A) gpresult /r B) gpupdate /force C) rsop.msc /force D) secedit /refreshpolicy Answer: B Explanation: gpupdate /force reapplies all GPOs immediately. Question 65. Which DNS server role must be installed before you can create a DNS zone? A) Active Directory Domain Services B) DHCP Server C) DNS Server D) File Services Answer: C Explanation: The DNS Server role provides the DNS service needed to host zones. Question 66. Which DHCP scope option supplies the default gateway address to clients? A) Option 3 B) Option 6 C) Option 15 D) Option 51
