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Question 1. Which of the following best distinguishes a programme from a project? A) A programme delivers a single product, while a project delivers multiple products. B) A programme focuses on benefits realization over time, whereas a project focuses on delivering defined outputs. C) A programme is always smaller in scale than a project. D) A programme does not require governance structures. Answer: B Explanation: Programmes are designed to achieve strategic outcomes and deliver benefits over time, while projects are temporary endeavors aimed at delivering specific outputs. Question 2. In the MSP context, what does the “Programme Environment” refer to? A) The set of tools used by the Programme Office. B) The external and internal conditions, uncertainties, and transformational factors influencing the programme. C) The physical location where the programme team works. D) The budget allocated to the programme. Answer: B Explanation: The Programme Environment encompasses the complex, uncertain, and transformational context in which programmes operate. Question 3. Which MSP principle emphasizes the need to adapt when faced with uncertainty? A) Lead with Purpose B) Deal with Ambiguity C) Align with Priorities D) Deploy Diverse Skills Answer: B
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Explanation: “Deal with Ambiguity” calls for strategies to manage unforeseen changes and complexity while keeping focus on outcomes. Question 4. The Senior Responsible Owner (SRO) is primarily accountable for which of the following? A) Day-to-day task scheduling. B) Ensuring the programme delivers its defined benefits and remains aligned with strategic objectives. C) Managing the programme’s technical documentation. D) Conducting routine quality inspections. Answer: B Explanation: The SRO holds ultimate accountability for programme justification, benefits realization, and strategic alignment. Question 5. Which role is chiefly responsible for preparing the business to adopt new capabilities? A) Programme Manager (PgM) B) Senior Responsible Owner (SRO) C) Business Change Manager (BCM) D) Project Sponsor Answer: C Explanation: The BCM focuses on change readiness, capability building, and benefits realization across the organisation. Question 6. In MSP, the Programme Board’s main purpose is to: A) Perform detailed project scheduling. B) Provide strategic direction, authorise resources, and make key decisions. C) Manage day-to-day operational tasks. D) Conduct technical design work. Answer: B
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Explanation: Collaboration across boundaries requires mechanisms for cross-functional interaction and shared governance. Question 10. A Benefits Map is primarily used to: A) Track project schedules. B) Visualise the logical link from outputs to outcomes and ultimately to benefits. C) Record financial expenditures. D) Document risk mitigation actions. Answer: B Explanation: The Benefits Map shows how programme outputs lead to outcomes and the realisation of benefits. Question 11. Which Governance Theme focuses on defining the Programme’s organisational structure and stakeholder engagement? A) Design Theme B) Organization Theme C) Structure Theme D) Knowledge Theme Answer: B Explanation: The Organization Theme deals with governance structures, roles, responsibilities, and stakeholder communication. Question 12. The Target Operating Model (TOM) is also known as: A) The Programme Blueprint. B) The Risk Register. C) The Issue Log. D) The Financial Forecast. Answer: A Explanation: The TOM/Programme Blueprint defines the future organisation, processes, people, and technology.
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Question 13. Which activity belongs to the Justification Theme? A) Conducting a gap analysis. B) Developing and maintaining the Business Case. C) Defining the RACI matrix. D) Capturing lessons learned. Answer: B Explanation: The Justification Theme ensures the Business Case remains valid and aligned with benefits and costs. Question 14. In the Structure Theme, a “tranche” refers to: A) A financial instrument. B) A distinct, manageable segment of the programme delivered in a defined timeframe. C. A risk category. D. A stakeholder group. Answer: B Explanation: A tranche is a logical grouping of work that can be planned, delivered, and reviewed as a unit. Question 15. Which of the following is a key output of the Knowledge Theme? A) Programme financial forecast. B) Programme Knowledge Strategy and captured lessons learned. C) Detailed Gantt chart. D) Risk heat map. Answer: B Explanation: The Knowledge Theme creates strategies for knowledge capture, reuse, and lessons learned. Question 16. The “Three Lines of Defence” model includes all EXCEPT: A) Operational management (first line).
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D. Conduct a financial audit. Answer: B Explanation: Embedding outcomes ensures that capabilities become part of business-as-usual and benefits are measured. **Question 20. Which activity is NOT part of the “Evaluate New Information” phase? ** A) Conducting health checks. B. Deciding whether to proceed to the next tranche. C. Closing the programme permanently. D. Updating the Business Case based on new data. Answer: C Explanation: Closing the programme occurs in the final “Close the Programme” phase, not during evaluation. Question 21. Tailoring MSP is primarily driven by: A) The colour scheme of the programme documents. B) Programme complexity, environment, and organisational maturity. C) The personal preference of the Programme Manager. D) The number of stakeholders involved. Answer: B Explanation: Tailoring considers complexity, environment, and maturity to determine the level of formality needed. Question 22. Integration of MSP with PRINCE2 is most relevant at which level? A) Programme governance only. B) Project delivery within the programme. C) Benefits realisation only. D) Stakeholder communication. Answer: B
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Explanation: PRINCE2 provides the project-level methodology that operates under the programme’s governance. Question 23. Which of the following best describes a “benefit profile”? A) A list of all project deliverables. B) A schedule of when each benefit is expected to be realised. C) A risk assessment matrix. D) A stakeholder engagement plan. Answer: B Explanation: A benefit profile maps benefits against time, showing expected realisation dates. Question 24. In MSP, the “Deploy Diverse Skills” principle encourages: A) Hiring only senior managers. B) Acquiring a blend of technical, business, and leadership capabilities. C) Using a single vendor for all services. D) Limiting team composition to internal staff. Answer: B Explanation: Diverse skills ensure the programme can address varied challenges across domains. Question 25. Which document captures the logical flow from outputs to outcomes? A) Programme Risk Register. B) Benefits Map. C) Programme Schedule. D) Stakeholder Register. Answer: B Explanation: The Benefits Map visualises how outputs generate outcomes and ultimately benefits.
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B) Vision Statement. C. Issue Escalation Procedure. D. Financial Contingency Plan. Answer: B Explanation: The Design Theme creates the Vision and the initial design artefacts such as the Benefits Map. Question 30. The primary purpose of the Programme Plan is to: A) Record all stakeholder contacts. B) Organise the programme into tranches and define delivery cycles. C) List all risks in a spreadsheet. D) Document the programme’s colour palette. Answer: B Explanation: The Programme Plan structures the work into manageable tranches and cycles. Question 31. Which of the following best describes “programme justification”? A) The process of obtaining stakeholder signatures. B) Ongoing validation that the programme remains viable, affordable, and aligned with strategic objectives. C) Writing the programme charter. D) Conducting a post-implementation review. Answer: B Explanation: Justification ensures continuous alignment between benefits, costs, and strategic intent. Question 32. In the Decisions Theme, “Change Control” deals with: A) Adjusting the programme’s colour scheme. B) Managing deviations from agreed baselines of scope, time, cost, and benefits. C) Approving new stakeholder groups.
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D. Setting up the programme office. Answer: B Explanation: Change control governs alterations to the baseline plan. Question 33. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Programme Office? A) Providing support to the Programme Manager. B) Maintaining programme documentation and configuration. C) Making final strategic decisions for the programme. D) Facilitating governance processes. Answer: C Explanation: Strategic decisions rest with the Programme Board and SRO, not the Programme Office. Question 34. The “Stakeholder Engagement Plan” is primarily created under which Governance Theme? A) Organization Theme. B) Design Theme. C) Structure Theme. D) Assurance Theme. Answer: A Explanation: The Organization Theme includes stakeholder engagement and communication planning. Question 35. Which of the following best illustrates “realising measurable benefits”? A) Recording the number of meetings held. B) Tracking the reduction in processing time after a new system is introduced. C) Counting the number of project documents produced. D) Measuring the length of the programme charter. Answer: B
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Question 39. The “Programme Benefits Register” is primarily used to: A) Record project milestones. B) List and monitor all expected benefits, their owners, and measurement criteria. C) Capture stakeholder contact details. D) Document the programme’s governance structure. Answer: B Explanation: The Benefits Register tracks benefits, owners, and how they will be measured. Question 40. Which of the following best describes “risk appetite” in a programme context? A) The total number of risks a programme can have. B) The amount and type of risk the organisation is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. C) The speed at which risks are logged. D) The number of risk workshops held per month. Answer: B Explanation: Risk appetite defines the organisation’s tolerance for risk relative to its goals. Question 41. The “Programme Assurance Strategy” is developed under which theme? A) Assurance Theme. B) Structure Theme. C) Knowledge Theme. D) Design Theme. Answer: A Explanation: The Assurance Theme defines how assurance activities are planned and executed. Question 42. Which of the following is an example of a non-financial benefit?
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A) Increased revenue. B) Improved employee morale. C) Reduced capital expenditure. D) Lower operating costs. Answer: B Explanation: Non-financial benefits include qualitative improvements such as morale or brand reputation. Question 43. In MSP, a “tranche” is typically authorised after which activity? A) Completion of the programme closure report. B) A formal review and decision to proceed (Go/No-Go). C) Hiring of the Programme Manager. D) Publication of the stakeholder register. Answer: B Explanation: Tranches are approved following a health check or review that confirms readiness. Question 44. Which Governance Theme focuses on financial management, including budgets and cash-flow forecasts? A) Justification Theme. B) Structure Theme. C) Organization Theme. D) Knowledge Theme. Answer: A Explanation: The Justification Theme handles business case, budgets, and financial justification. Question 45. The purpose of “configuration management” within the Knowledge Theme is to: A) Control changes to programme documentation to ensure consistency and traceability.
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C) Approving the programme budget. D) Developing the risk register. Answer: B Explanation: The BCM ensures the organisation adopts new capabilities through training and communication. Question 49. Which of the following statements about the “Programme Mandate” is correct? A) It is created after the programme has been closed. B) It provides the authority to initiate the programme and outlines its purpose. C) It contains detailed project schedules. D) It is a financial report. Answer: B Explanation: The Mandate authorises the programme and defines its high-level purpose. Question 50. The “RACI” matrix is most closely associated with which Governance Theme? A) Organization Theme. B) Assurance Theme. C) Knowledge Theme. D) Decisions Theme. Answer: A Explanation: RACI defines roles, responsibilities, and decision-making authority, a core part of the Organization Theme. Question 51. Which of the following is an example of a “strategic alignment” activity? A) Updating the programme schedule weekly. B) Reviewing the programme’s Business Case against the organisation’s current strategy.
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C) Printing programme documents in colour. D) Conducting a technical design review. Answer: B Explanation: Strategic alignment ensures the programme remains consistent with organisational objectives. Question 52. In MSP, “benefit dependency” refers to: A) The relationship between two risks. B) The logical link showing how an output enables an outcome which in turn generates a benefit. C) The dependency of a project on a vendor. D) The schedule relationship between tasks. Answer: B Explanation: Benefit dependencies map the chain from outputs → outcomes → benefits. Question 53. Which of the following is NOT a typical output of the “Close the Programme” phase? A) End Programme Report. B) Final benefits review. C) Programme Vision Statement. D) Transfer of ownership to Business-as-Usual. Answer: C Explanation: The Vision is created early; the closure phase produces reports, benefits review, and handover. Question 54. The “Programme Business Case” should be: A) Developed once at the beginning and never revisited. B) Continuously refined and validated throughout the programme lifecycle. C) Kept secret from stakeholders. D) Focused only on cost savings.
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Explanation: The Blueprint (Target Operating Model) describes the desired future state of the organisation. Question 58. Which of the following is a primary reason to use MSP rather than a project-only approach? A) To reduce the number of meetings. B) To manage multiple inter-related projects that together deliver strategic benefits. C) To avoid any governance. D) To focus solely on cost reduction. Answer: B Explanation: MSP is designed for programmes that coordinate several projects to achieve strategic outcomes. Question 59. Which of the following activities is part of the “Plan Progressive Delivery” phase? A. Conducting the final benefits review. B. Developing detailed tranche plans and refining the Business Case. C. Writing the programme mandate. D. Performing post-implementation audit. Answer: B Explanation: Planning progressive delivery involves detailed planning of tranches and Business Case refinement. Question 60. In the context of MSP, “benefit realisation” is measured at which point(s)? A) Only at programme closure. B) Continuously throughout delivery and after transition to BAU. C) Only during the design phase. D) Never; benefits are assumed. Answer: B
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Explanation: Benefits are tracked during delivery and after embedding to confirm they are realised. Question 61. Which of the following best illustrates “cross-boundary collaboration” in MSP? A) A single department completing all work. B) Establishing joint governance forums that include business, IT, and external partners. C) Restricting communication to email threads. D) Outsourcing all activities to a third-party without internal involvement. Answer: B Explanation: Collaboration across boundaries involves joint forums and shared decision-making across functions. Question 62. The “Programme Assurance Strategy” typically defines: A) The colour palette for programme documentation. B) The schedule of assurance activities, responsibilities, and reporting mechanisms. C) The list of all project tasks. D) The programme’s lunch menu. Answer: B Explanation: The strategy outlines assurance planning, responsibilities, and reporting. Question 63. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “well-governed” programme? A) No documentation is required. B) Clear decision-making authority and transparent reporting. C) Unlimited budget. D) Only senior management is involved in day-to-day tasks. Answer: B
