PrepIQ OGET 174 Ultimate Exam, Exams of Technology

The Oklahoma General Education Test (OGET) (174) measures basic academic skills in reading, writing, critical thinking, and mathematics. Required for teacher certification, it ensures foundational knowledge in liberal arts and general education. The writing section includes a constructed-response essay assessing analytical communication.

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2025/2026

Available from 04/03/2026

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PrepIQ OGET 174 Ultimate Exam
Question 38. **Which of the following sentences contains a misplaced modifier?**
A) Running quickly, the finish line was crossed by Jenna.
B) Jenna crossed the finish line while running quickly.
C) While running quickly, Jenna crossed the finish line.
D) Jenna, running quickly, crossed the finish line.
Answer: A
Explanation: The modifier “Running quickly” incorrectly appears to describe “the
finish line” instead of Jenna.
Question 39. **In a bar graph comparing quarterly sales, the tallest bar
represents:**
A) The median sales value.
B) The mode of the data set.
C) The highest sales figure for a quarter.
D) The average sales across all quarters.
Answer: C
Explanation: The tallest bar visually displays the greatest quantity among the
categories shown.
Question 40. **If a researcher wants to evaluate bias in a news article, which
question is most relevant?**
A) How many images are included?
B) Does the author present multiple viewpoints?
C) What font size is used for the headline?
D) How many advertisements appear on the page?
Answer: B
Explanation: Assessing whether multiple perspectives are presented directly
addresses potential bias.
Question 41. **Which of the following is an example of a “cause-and-effect”
transition word?**
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Question 38. Which of the following sentences contains a misplaced modifier? A) Running quickly, the finish line was crossed by Jenna. B) Jenna crossed the finish line while running quickly. C) While running quickly, Jenna crossed the finish line. D) Jenna, running quickly, crossed the finish line. Answer: A Explanation: The modifier “Running quickly” incorrectly appears to describe “the finish line” instead of Jenna. Question 39. In a bar graph comparing quarterly sales, the tallest bar represents: A) The median sales value. B) The mode of the data set. C) The highest sales figure for a quarter. D) The average sales across all quarters. Answer: C Explanation: The tallest bar visually displays the greatest quantity among the categories shown. Question 40. If a researcher wants to evaluate bias in a news article, which question is most relevant? A) How many images are included? B) Does the author present multiple viewpoints? C) What font size is used for the headline? D) How many advertisements appear on the page? Answer: B Explanation: Assessing whether multiple perspectives are presented directly addresses potential bias. Question 41. Which of the following is an example of a “cause-and-effect” transition word?

A) However B) Consequently C) Likewise D) Moreover Answer: B Explanation: “Consequently” signals that one idea results from another. Question 42. Which of the following best defines “syntax”? A) The meaning of words. B) The arrangement of words in sentences. C) The use of figurative language. D) The punctuation marks in a paragraph. Answer: B Explanation: Syntax refers to the structural rules governing word order. Question 43. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence. A) She enjoys reading, writing and, arithmetic. B) She enjoys reading, writing, and arithmetic. C) She enjoys reading writing, and arithmetic. D) She enjoys, reading, writing and arithmetic. Answer: B Explanation: The serial (Oxford) comma correctly separates all items in the list. Question 44. If 15% of a 200-page manuscript is footnotes, how many pages contain footnotes? A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 35 Answer: B

Explanation: A strong thesis clearly states a claim and outlines supporting points. Question 48. In a multiple-choice test, a student guesses on three questions. If each question has five answer choices, what is the probability that the student gets exactly one correct? A) 0. B) 0. C) 0. D) 0. Answer: A Explanation: Use the binomial formula: C(3,1)(1/5)^1(4/5)^2 = 3 × 0.2 × 0.64 = 0.384. Wait calculation: 3 × 0.2 × 0.64 = 0.384. So answer B. Answer: B Explanation: The probability of exactly one success in three independent trials with p = 0.2 is 0.384. Question 49. Which of the following best describes “intertextuality”? A) The use of footnotes in academic writing. B) The relationship between a text and other texts. C) The study of word origins. D) The analysis of sentence structure. Answer: B Explanation: Intertextuality refers to how texts reference, echo, or influence one another. Question 50. What is the slope of the line that passes through (0, 4) and (2, –2)? A) – B) – C) – D) 3 Answer: A Explanation: Slope = (–2 – 4) ÷ (2 – 0) = (–6) ÷ 2 = –3.

Question 51. If the median of a data set is 18 and the mean is 22, which statement must be true? A) The distribution is symmetric. B) The distribution is negatively skewed. C) The distribution is positively skewed. D) No conclusion about skewness can be drawn. Answer: C Explanation: When the mean > median, the distribution typically has a longer right tail (positive skew). Question 52. Which of the following best illustrates a “semantic” error? A) “Their going to the store.” B) “She has less books than I do.” C) “I can’t wait to eat dessert.” D) “The cat chased it’s tail.” Answer: B Explanation: “Less” should be “fewer” when referring to countable nouns; this is a semantic misuse. Question 53. A researcher uses a Likert scale (1-5) to measure agreement. Which level of measurement is this? A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio Answer: B Explanation: Likert responses have a rank order but unequal intervals, making them ordinal. Question 54. Which of the following is an example of a “primary” source in scientific research?

Explanation: The topic sentence states the main idea and is usually placed at the beginning. Question 58. **Which of the following best defines “plagiarism” in academic writing? ** A) Citing a source incorrectly. B) Using another’s ideas without attribution. C) Paraphrasing a source with a citation. D) Summarizing a text in one’s own words. Answer: B Explanation: Plagiarism occurs when ideas or language are used without giving credit. Question 59. If a data set has a range of 24 and the minimum value is 8, what is the maximum value? A) 16 B) 24 C) 32 D) 40 Answer: C Explanation: Range = max – min → max = range + min = 24 + 8 = 32. Question 60. Which of the following is a correct way to cite a direct quote in APA style? A) (Smith, 2020, p. 45) B) (Smith 2020, p.45) C) Smith, 2020, p. D) (2020, Smith, p.45) Answer: A Explanation: APA in-text citation format for a quote includes author, year, and page number separated by commas.

Question 61. Which of the following is an example of “parallel structure”? A) She likes to swim, jogging, and to bike. B) She likes swimming, jogging, and biking. C) She likes swimming, to jog, and biking. D) She likes to swim, to jog, and biking. Answer: B Explanation: All items are gerunds, maintaining parallelism. Question 62. If the probability of selecting a red marble from a bag is 0.4, what are the odds in favor of selecting a red marble? A) 2 : 3 B) 4 : 6 C) 0.4 : 0. D) 2 : 5 Answer: A Explanation: Odds in favor = p : (1 – p) = 0.4 : 0.6 = 4 : 6 = reduced to 2 : 3. Question 63. Which of the following best describes the “tone” of a passage that uses formal, objective language and avoids emotional words? A) Sarcastic B) Informal C) Impersonal D) Humorous Answer: C Explanation: An impersonal tone is detached and objective. Question 64. In a Venn diagram, the overlapping area of two circles represents: A) Elements that belong to neither set. B) Elements that belong to both sets. C) Elements that belong only to the first set.

Question 68. Which of the following is an example of a “connotation” rather than a “denotation”? A) “Dog” meaning a domesticated canine. B) “Home” meaning a place where one lives. C) “Home” evoking feelings of warmth and safety. D) “Tree” meaning a plant with a trunk. Answer: C Explanation: Connotation refers to the emotional or cultural associations of a word. Question 69. In a research paper, the “methods” section should include: A) A literature review of previous studies. B) Detailed procedures used to collect and analyze data. C) The author’s personal opinions on the results. D) A summary of the findings. Answer: B Explanation: The methods section describes how the study was conducted. Question 70. If a quadratic equation is x² – 6x + 9 = 0, what are its roots? A) x = 3, 3 B) x = –3, – C) x = 0, 6 D) x = 9, – Answer: A Explanation: The equation factors to (x – 3)² = 0, giving a double root at x = 3. Question 71. Which of the following best illustrates “author bias”? A) Providing balanced viewpoints on a controversial issue. B) Using only sources that support the author’s argument while ignoring opposing evidence.

C) Citing all sources according to a standard format. D) Including statistical data to support claims. Answer: B Explanation: Selecting only supportive evidence demonstrates bias. Question 72. A paragraph that begins with a “hook” is intended to: A) Summarize the main points. B) Capture the reader’s attention. C) Cite sources. D) Provide a conclusion. Answer: B Explanation: A hook engages the audience at the start of a paragraph or essay. Question 73. If the probability of event A is 0.3 and the probability of event B is 0.5, and the events are independent, what is the probability that both occur? A) 0. B) 0. C) 0. D) 0. Answer: A Explanation: For independent events, P(A ∧ B) = P(A) × P(B) = 0.3 × 0.5 = 0.15. Question 74. Which of the following is a correct example of a “compound-complex” sentence? A) Although it rained, we went outside. B) She cooked dinner and watched TV. C) He studied hard, but he failed the exam because he was ill. D) The dog barked. Answer: C

Question 78. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to avoid plagiarism when paraphrasing? A) Change a few words but keep the original sentence order. B) Rewrite the idea in your own words and cite the original source. C) Use quotation marks without a citation. D) Copy the passage verbatim and add a citation. Answer: B Explanation: Proper paraphrasing requires re-expressing the idea and providing a citation. Question 79. In a logical argument, the term “premise” refers to: A) The conclusion drawn from evidence. B) An assumption that supports the conclusion. C) A rhetorical question. D) An emotional appeal. Answer: B Explanation: Premises are statements or reasons that provide support for the conclusion. Question 80. Which of the following best characterizes a “linear function”? A) Its graph is a parabola. B) It has a constant rate of change. C) It includes an exponent greater than 1. D) It always passes through the origin. Answer: B Explanation: Linear functions have a constant slope, representing a constant rate of change. Question 81. If a research article lists “doi:10.1080/12345678.2020.00123,” what does “doi” stand for? A) Document of information

B) Digital object identifier C) Data output index D) Direct online inscription Answer: B Explanation: DOI is a permanent identifier for digital publications. Question 82. Which of the following sentences uses the correct comparative form of “bad”? A) This is the badder solution. B) This is the worst solution. C) This is the more bad solution. D) This is the baddest solution. Answer: B Explanation: “Bad” forms the irregular comparative “worse” and superlative “worst”; “worst” fits the superlative context. Question 83. A researcher wants to analyze the relationship between study time and test scores. Which statistical method is most appropriate? A) Chi-square test B) Pearson correlation coefficient C) One-sample t-test D) Logistic regression Answer: B Explanation: Correlation measures the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two continuous variables. Question 84. In a persuasive essay, the “counterargument” section should: A) Ignore opposing views. B) Present and refute opposing viewpoints. C) Summarize the essay’s main points. D) Provide unrelated anecdotes.

Question 88. If a data set has a standard deviation of 0, what can be said about the data? A) All values are identical. B) The data are normally distributed. C) The mean is zero. D) The data contain outliers. Answer: A Explanation: Zero standard deviation means there is no variability; every observation equals the mean. Question 89. Which of the following best describes “deductive reasoning”? A) Drawing conclusions from specific observations. B) Formulating a hypothesis based on a pattern. C) Applying a general principle to a specific case. D) Using statistical data to predict outcomes. Answer: C Explanation: Deductive reasoning moves from a general rule to a particular instance. Question 90. In a narrative essay, the “climax” is: A) The introduction of characters. B) The point of highest tension or turning point. C) The resolution of the plot. D) The conclusion summarizing the theme. Answer: B Explanation: The climax is the peak of conflict or tension in a story. Question 91. Which of the following is the correct way to write a number in formal academic prose when it begins a sentence? A) 45 students participated in the study. B) Forty-five students participated in the study.

C) forty-five students participated in the study. D) 45 students participated in the study (see Table 1). Answer: B Explanation: Numbers at the start of a sentence should be spelled out. Question 92. If the probability of drawing a heart from a standard deck is 1/4, what are the odds against drawing a heart? A) 1 : 3 B) 3 : 1 C) 1 : 4 D) 4 : 1 Answer: B Explanation: Odds against = (1 – p) : p = (3/4) : (1/4) = 3 : 1. Question 93. Which of the following best illustrates “semantic ambiguity”? A) “I saw her duck.” (Could mean the bird or the action) B) “The cat chased its tail.” C) “She runs fast.” D) “He is a tall man.” Answer: A Explanation: The word “duck” has multiple meanings, creating ambiguity. Question 94. A researcher uses a “double-blind” design. What does this mean? A) Neither participants nor researchers know who receives the treatment. B) Only participants are unaware of the treatment. C) Only researchers are unaware of the treatment. D) Both groups know who receives the treatment. Answer: A Explanation: Double-blind studies prevent bias by keeping both parties unaware of group assignments.

A) Present raw data. B) Summarize and synthesize existing research related to the topic. C) List the author’s personal opinions. D) Describe the statistical software used. Answer: B Explanation: The literature review contextualizes the study within existing scholarship. Question 99. Which of the following is an example of a “closed-ended” research question? A) How do students experience online learning? B) What factors influence voting behavior? C) Does the new policy reduce absenteeism? D) Why do people migrate? Answer: C Explanation: Closed-ended questions can be answered with a simple “yes” or “no.” Question 100. If a triangle has side lengths 5, 12, 13, what type of triangle is it? A) Equilateral B) Isosceles C) Right-angled D) Obtuse Answer: C Explanation: 5² + 12² = 25 + 144 = 169 = 13², satisfying the Pythagorean theorem. Question 101. Which of the following best describes “author’s purpose” when the text aims to inform? A) To persuade the reader to adopt a belief. B) To entertain with a story. C) To present factual information. D) To criticize a policy.

Answer: C Explanation: An informative purpose conveys facts and data. Question 102. In a data table, the “mean” is located in the column labeled: A) Total B) Median C) Average D) Mode Answer: C Explanation: “Average” is synonymous with the arithmetic mean. Question 103. **Which of the following is a correct example of a “run-on sentence”? ** A) I went to the store, and I bought milk. B) The sun rose; the birds sang. C) I love reading I also enjoy writing. D) Because it was raining, we stayed inside. Answer: C Explanation: Two independent clauses are joined without proper punctuation or conjunction. Question 104. If a researcher wants to ensure a sample is representative of the population’s demographics, which sampling method should they use? A) Convenience sampling B) Snowball sampling C) Stratified random sampling D) Purposive sampling Answer: C Explanation: Stratified sampling divides the population into subgroups and samples proportionally.