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General Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which Oklahoma statute defines the term “elevator” for licensing purposes? A) 59 O.S. § 3010 B) 59 O.S. § 3020 C) 59 O.S. § 3030 D) 59 O.S. § 3040 Answer: B Explanation: Oklahoma Elevator Safety Act is codified at 59 O.S. § 3020, which includes definitions for “conveyance,” “elevator,” and “escalator.” Question 2. An Oklahoma elevator contractor must hold which of the following certificates to legally install new equipment? A) Certificate of Inspection B) Certificate of Operation C) Certificate of Completion D) Certificate of Compliance Answer: B Explanation: The state requires a Certificate of Operation for any contractor performing installation, alteration, or repair of elevators. Question 3. Under OAC 380:70, how often must a passenger elevator be inspected for routine safety compliance? A) Every 6 months B) Annually C) Every 2 years D) Every 5 years Answer: B Explanation: Routine (Category 1) inspections are required annually for passenger elevators. Question 4. Which ASME code edition is currently adopted by Oklahoma for new traction elevators installed after January 1, 2022? A) ASME A17.1- 2019 B) ASME A17.1- 2022
General Ultimate Exam
C) ASME A17.1- 2016
D) ASME A17.1-2025 (future) Answer: B Explanation: Oklahoma adopted the 2022 edition of ASME A17.1 for traction elevators. Question 5. The “lock-out/tag-out” (LOTO) procedure is required when performing which task? A) Routine visual inspection of the car interior B) Adjusting the door operator spring tension C) Replacing the controller’s printed circuit board D) Cleaning the pit floor with a mop Answer: C Explanation: LOTO is mandatory when work could expose personnel to hazardous energy, such as disconnecting power to replace a controller board. Question 6. OSHA requires hoistway entry doors to be equipped with which safety feature? A) Automatic sliding closure B) Interlocked guarding that prevents entry when the car is present C) Manual padlock only D) No specific requirement Answer: B Explanation: OSHA mandates interlocked guarding to prevent accidental entry into a hoistway while the car is moving. Question 7. The minimum fire-rating for a machine-room wall separating it from the hoistway in Oklahoma is: A) 30 minutes B) 45 minutes C) 1 hour D) 2 hours Answer: C
General Ultimate Exam
A) Hard hat B) Safety glasses C) Steel-toe boots D) Hearing protection only if noise exceeds 85 dB Answer: D Explanation: While hearing protection may be required based on noise levels, it is not universally mandatory like hard hats, safety glasses, and steel-toe boots. Question 12. For an electric traction elevator, the “two-way communication system” must be located: A) Only in the car B) Only in the machine room C) In both the car and the hoistway landing D) In the car and at each landing for emergency use Answer: D Explanation: Emergency communication must be available in the car and at each landing to allow passengers to summon help. Question 13. The “phase reversal” function in a hydraulic elevator controller protects against: A) Power loss B) Over-travel of the car C) Reverse polarity of the supply voltage D) Excessive oil temperature Answer: C Explanation: Phase reversal detects and shuts down the system if the incoming AC supply voltage is reversed. Question 14. Which of the following is a required feature on a hydraulic elevator’s “check valve”? A) Adjustable spring tension B) Manual override lever C) One-way flow to prevent back-drainage of oil
General Ultimate Exam
D) Integrated pressure gauge Answer: C Explanation: The check valve permits flow toward the cylinder only, preventing back-drainage and uncontrolled descent. Question 15. The “anti-creep” device on a hydraulic elevator is intended to: A) Limit the car’s maximum speed B) Prevent slow, uncontrolled movement when the motor is off C) Increase the oil pressure during ascent D) Provide a secondary braking system Answer: B Explanation: Anti-creep devices (e.g., flow control valves) stop the car from slowly moving when power is removed. Question 16. When testing a hydraulic elevator’s relief valve, the required test pressure must be at least: A) 150 % of the rated working pressure B) 200 % of the rated working pressure C) 250 % of the rated working pressure D) 300 % of the rated working pressure Answer: B Explanation: ASME A17.2 requires the relief valve to be tested at 200 % of the rated working pressure to verify proper operation. Question 17. The “comb-plate” on an escalator must be inspected for which condition during a periodic inspection? A) Color match with the step tread B) Proper clearance from the step edges (≤ 1/8 in) C) Presence of decorative lighting D) Alignment with the handrail curvature Answer: B Explanation: The comb-plate must maintain a clearance of no more than 1/8 in to prevent entrapment.
General Ultimate Exam
B) Functional test of the governor’s overspeed trip at rated speed + 25 % C) Measurement of governor spring tension with a gauge D) No test required if the governor passed the last Category 1 inspection Answer: B Explanation: Category 5 inspections require a functional overspeed test to verify the governor trips correctly. Question 22. The “full-load safety test” for a traction elevator must be performed at what load? A) 75 % of rated capacity B) 100 % of rated capacity C) 125 % of rated capacity D) 150 % of rated capacity Answer: C Explanation: ASME A17.2 mandates a full-load test at 125 % of the rated load to confirm safety-brake performance. Question 23. Which document must be posted inside every elevator car in Oklahoma? A) Manufacturer’s warranty certificate B) Emergency evacuation plan for the building C) Data tag indicating speed, capacity, and inspection date D) Contractor’s business license copy Answer: C Explanation: A data tag (or instruction plate) with speed, capacity, and inspection information must be visible inside the car. Question 24. When reporting an elevator accident to the Oklahoma Safety Authority, the report must be filed within: A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 7 days
General Ultimate Exam
Answer: B Explanation: State regulations require accident reports to be submitted within 48 hours of the incident. Question 25. The minimum clearance required around an elevator controller in a machine room is: A) 6 in on all sides B) 12 in on the front only C) 18 in on all sides D) No specific clearance if the controller is mounted on a wall Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of 18 in of clearance on all sides ensures safe access for maintenance and fire protection. Question 26. In an escalator, the “skirt obstruction switch” must be located no higher than: A) 6 in above the step surface B) 12 in above the step surface C) 18 in above the step surface D) 24 in above the step surface Answer: B Explanation: The skirt switch must be positioned within 12 in of the step surface to detect objects entering the clearance zone. Question 27. Which of the following is a required feature on a hydraulic elevator’s “oil level gauge”? A) Digital readout with alarm B) Transparent sight glass with minimum 1 in visibility C) Integrated temperature sensor D) Automatic refill pump Answer: B Explanation: A sight glass must allow at least 1 in of oil to be seen for visual inspection of level.
General Ultimate Exam
C) 90 days D) Immediately, before the next passenger service Answer: D Explanation: A missing safety latch is an immediate hazard; the elevator must be taken out of service until repaired. Question 32. The required minimum headroom above the top landing of a passenger elevator is: A) 7 ft B) 8 ft C) 9 ft D) 10 ft Answer: C Explanation: OSHA and ASME standards stipulate at least 9 ft of headroom above the top landing for safe egress. Question 33. Which component of a traction elevator provides the “holding” function when the car is at rest? A) Governor B) Brake drum C) Counterweight D) Machine-room brake Answer: B Explanation: The brake drum (or shoe) holds the car stationary when the elevator is stopped. Question 34. A “phase II fire-fighter service” differs from phase I primarily by: A) Providing a higher speed for rapid rescue B) Operating on a separate dedicated power source C) Allowing operation with the main hoistway fire doors closed D) Using a manual hand-crank backup Answer: C
General Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Phase II service permits operation while main hoistway fire doors are closed, providing a protected path during fire conditions. Question 35. What is the maximum allowable travel distance for a single-speed hydraulic elevator without a compensating pit? A) 30 ft B) 50 ft C) 75 ft D) 100 ft Answer: B Explanation: Single-speed hydraulic elevators are limited to 50 ft of travel unless a pit or other compensating device is provided. Question 36. The “step-chain monitor” on an escalator must be tested by: A) Removing a step and observing the alarm B) Simulating a chain break with a disconnect device C) Increasing the load to 150 % of rated capacity D) Running the escalator at half speed for 10 min Answer: B Explanation: Testing is performed by artificially breaking the chain (or simulating the condition) to verify the monitor’s response. Question 37. Which of the following is a required marking on a hydraulic cylinder rod? A) Manufacturer’s logo only B) Maximum load rating in pounds or kilograms C) Date of installation D) Color-coded safety tag Answer: B Explanation: The rod must be marked with its maximum load rating to ensure proper usage and safety. Question 38. The “emergency stop button” on an escalator must be located:
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D) No penalty if the operator is licensed Answer: B Explanation: The state imposes a $500 fine and may order the elevator shut down until compliance is achieved. Question 42. The “pit safety gate” must be interlocked with which elevator component? A) Governor B) Car door lock C) Machine-room ventilation system D) Counterweight brake Answer: B Explanation: The pit gate must be interlocked with the car door to prevent access to the pit while the car is present. Question 43. For a traction elevator, the “sheave” must be inspected for wear every: A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 24 months D) 36 months Answer: B Explanation: ASME A17.2 requires annual inspection of sheaves for wear, corrosion, and alignment. Question 44. Which of the following is a required feature of the “handrail” on an escalator? A) Adjustable height for each user B) Continuous motion synchronized with step speed C) Decorative lighting only D) Ability to detach for cleaning Answer: B Explanation: Handrails must move at the same speed as the steps to provide a consistent grip for passengers.
General Ultimate Exam
Question 45. The “static load test” for a hydraulic cylinder is performed by: A) Pressurizing the cylinder to 150 % of rated pressure with the car attached B) Applying a dead-weight equal to 125 % of the rated load and holding for 30 seconds C) Running the elevator at full speed for 10 minutes D) Measuring oil temperature after a 5-minute run Answer: B Explanation: The static load test verifies the cylinder can support 125 % of its rated load without excessive deflection. Question 46. Which of the following is a prohibited practice when performing an elevator inspection in Oklahoma? A) Using a calibrated load cell for weight checks B) Conducting the inspection while the car is occupied C) Recording findings on a standardized inspection form D) Verifying the presence of the data tag Answer: B Explanation: Inspections must be done with the car empty to avoid endangering passengers. Question 47. The “emergency alarm” in a passenger elevator must emit a tone of at least:** A) 70 dB at 3 ft B) 80 dB at 3 ft C) 90 dB at 3 ft D) 100 dB at 3 ft Answer: C Explanation: ASME A17.1 requires a minimum of 90 dB at 3 ft for the emergency alarm to be audible. Question 48. A “travel-limit switch” on a platform lift is designed to: A) Prevent the platform from exceeding its rated speed
General Ultimate Exam
Answer: C Explanation: The brake must stop the car within 4 seconds from the point of load application to meet safety standards. Question 52. The “overspeed valve” on a hydraulic elevator is set to open at a speed of:** A) 2 ft/min above rated speed B) 5 ft/min above rated speed C) 10 ft/min above rated speed D) 15 ft/min above rated speed Answer: B Explanation: Overspeed valves typically trip at 5 ft/min above the rated speed to prevent hazardous acceleration. Question 53. Which of the following is a required feature for a “handrail safety device” on an escalator? A) Automatic retraction when not in use B) Slip-resistant surface C) Integrated lighting that flashes during emergencies D) Ability to detach for maintenance without stopping the escalator Answer: B Explanation: Handrails must have a slip-resistant surface to prevent passenger falls. Question 54. In Oklahoma, the “certificate of operation” must be renewed every:** A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 3 years D) 5 years Answer: C Explanation: The state requires a triennial renewal of the Certificate of Operation.
General Ultimate Exam
Question 55. The “load-weighing device” used during an inspection must be calibrated within:** A) 1 % of its stated capacity B) 2 % of its stated capacity C) 5 % of its stated capacity D) 10 % of its stated capacity Answer: A Explanation: Calibration tolerance for load-weighing devices is 1 % to ensure accurate capacity verification. Question 56. Which of the following is NOT a permissible material for the “hoist-rope” on a traction elevator? A) Steel wire rope with a minimum of 6 mm diameter B) Synthetic polymer rope with a safety factor of 10 C) Steel cable with a corrosion-resistant coating D) Rope with a minimum breaking strength of 10 times the rated load Answer: B Explanation: Synthetic polymer ropes are not approved for traction elevators; only steel wire ropes meeting specific criteria are permitted. Question 57. The “emergency power source” for a passenger elevator must be capable of providing at least:** A) 30 minutes of operation at full load B) 60 minutes of operation at 75 % load C) 90 minutes of operation at 50 % load D) 120 minutes of operation at 25 % load Answer: B Explanation: Code requires emergency power to sustain 60 minutes at 75 % of the elevator’s rated load. Question 58. Which of the following is a required safety feature for a “vertical platform lift” used in a commercial setting? A) Automatic fire-sprinkler system on the platform B) Dual-hand control switches for redundancy
General Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Inspections focus on corrosion, wire breakage, and correct tension to ensure safe operation. Question 62. When a “hydraulic elevator” is equipped with a “press-urized oil tank,” the tank must be equipped with a:** A) Pressure gauge calibrated to ± 5 psi B) Temperature sensor only C) Manual pump for oil addition D) Automatic fire-suppression system Answer: A Explanation: A calibrated pressure gauge is required to monitor oil pressure within the system. Question 63. The “handrail speed sensor” on an escalator must be calibrated to detect a speed deviation of more than:** A) 5 % B) 10 % C) 15 % D) 20 % Answer: B Explanation: Handrail speed sensors must detect deviations exceeding 10 % to trigger an alarm. Question 64. Which of the following is a required marking on a “hydraulic cylinder” indicating the maximum permissible pressure? A) “Maximum Pressure: 300 psi” in permanent ink B) A removable sticker with the pressure rating C) A painted stripe of any color D) No marking is required if the cylinder is stamped with a serial number Answer: A Explanation: Permanent markings must state the maximum pressure to prevent over-pressurization.
General Ultimate Exam
Question 65. The “emergency communication system” in a passenger elevator must be capable of: A) Transmitting voice messages only B) Two-way voice communication with building personnel or fire department C) Sending a pre-recorded alarm tone only D) Activating the building’s public address system Answer: B Explanation: Two-way communication is required for passengers to request assistance. Question 66. During a Category 1 inspection, the “door-closing force” must be measured and shall not exceed:** A) 10 lb for passenger doors B) 15 lb for passenger doors C) 20 lb for passenger doors D) 25 lb for passenger doors Answer: B Explanation: The maximum allowable door-closing force for passenger doors is 15 lb. Question 67. Which of the following is a required feature on a “dumbwaiter” used in a hospital setting? A) Automatic sterilization cycle B) Load-cell monitoring with audible alarm at overload C) Transparent car walls for visual inspection D) Integrated RFID tracking of each load Answer: B Explanation: Load-cell monitoring with an alarm is required to prevent overload and protect patients. Question 68. The “minimum pit depth” for a traction elevator with a machine-room-above configuration is:** A) 2 ft B) 3 ft
