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Study with the several resources on Docsity
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This flashcard-based resource aids preparation for the Praxis II Physical Education: Content Knowledge (5091) Exam, a certification test for PE educators. It includes over 300 flashcards covering kinesiology, motor learning, biomechanics, health, sport psychology, curriculum design, and assessment methods. Flashcards include questions with key definitions, concept clarifications, and teaching standards. The format is optimized for portable review and memory reinforcement. It benefits new educators, college graduates, and physical education majors seeking licensure.
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Question 1. Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for producing red blood cells in adults? A) Liver B) Spleen C) Bone marrow D) Thymus Answer: C Explanation: Bone marrow is the main site of erythropoiesis after birth. Question 2. The primary function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle fibers is to: A) Generate action potentials B) Store calcium ions C) Produce ATP D) Transmit nerve impulses Answer: B Explanation: The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium during excitation-contraction coupling. Question 3. Which component of the respiratory system is the main site of gas exchange? A) Trachea B) Bronchi C) Alveoli D) Larynx Answer: C Explanation: Alveoli have thin walls and a large surface area for O₂ and CO₂ diffusion. Question 4. During high-intensity anaerobic exercise, the predominant energy system is: A) Oxidative phosphorylation B) ATP-CP system C) Glycolysis D) Lipolysis Answer: C Explanation: Glycolysis rapidly produces ATP without oxygen, supporting short bursts of intense activity. Question 5. The principle of specificity states that: A) Training must be progressive B) Adaptations are specific to the type of stimulus C) Overload is required for improvement D) Rest is essential for recovery Answer: B Explanation: The body adapts specifically to the demands placed on it (e.g., strength training improves strength). Question 6. In biomechanics, torque is defined as: A) Force applied at the center of mass B) Rotational force around an axis C) Linear force parallel to motion D) Energy stored in a spring Answer: B Explanation: Torque = force × lever arm, creating rotation around a pivot. Question 7. The center of gravity of a human body is typically located near which anatomical region? A) Upper abdomen B) Pelvic region C) Shoulder girdle D) Cervical spine Answer: B Explanation: In most standing positions, the CG lies around the pelvis, allowing balance. Question 8. According to the force-velocity relationship, as force output increases, muscle contraction velocity: A) Increases B) Decreases C) Remains constant D)
Becomes unpredictable Answer: B Explanation: Higher force requires slower contraction speed (inverse relationship). Question 9. Which stage of motor development is characterized by the emergence of object permanence? A) Reflexive stage B) Primary circular reactions C) Secondary circular reactions D) Tertiary circular reactions Answer: C Explanation: In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, secondary circular reactions (around 4–8 months) involve interaction with external objects, indicating object permanence. Question 10. The term “motor schema” refers to: A) A genetic blueprint for movement B) A set of rules governing motor learning C) A reflex arc D) A type of muscle fiber Answer: B Explanation: Schemas are generalized motor programs that can be adapted to new situations. Question 11. In the context of movement concepts, “effort” is best described as: A) The amount of time spent practicing B) The combination of force, time, and flow C) The number of repetitions performed D) The mental focus of the athlete Answer: B Explanation: Effort integrates force, duration, and quality of movement. Question 12. Which fundamental movement skill involves moving the body from one location to another without changing support? A) Locomotor B) Non-locomotor C) Manipulative D) Stabilizing Answer: A Explanation: Locomotor skills include walking, running, hopping, and jumping. Question 13. A “throw” is classified as which type of manipulative skill? A) Push B) Pull C) Striking D) Throwing Answer: D Explanation: Throwing involves propelling an object through the air using the arm and hand. Question 14. In soccer, the offside rule is designed to: A) Prevent goalkeepers from handling the ball B) Limit the number of substitutions C) Prevent an attacking player from being ahead of the second-last defender when the ball is played D) Restrict hand use by outfield players Answer: C Explanation: Offside ensures fair play by preventing players from “cherry-picking” near the opponent’s goal. Question 15. Which of the following is a primary rule in volleyball regarding service rotation? A) The same player must serve every point B) Service rotates clockwise after each side-out C) The libero may serve in international play D) The
behavior Answer: B Explanation: Consistent signals and timers help students know when to transition, reducing chaos. Question 23. Positive behavior support plans typically emphasize: A) Punishment for infractions B) Reactive discipline only C) Proactive teaching of expected behaviors D) Excluding disruptive students Answer: C Explanation: PBSS focuses on teaching and reinforcing appropriate behavior before problems arise. Question 24. Self-efficacy most directly influences a student’s: A) Physical height B) Belief in ability to succeed at a task C) Genetic predisposition D) Nutritional needs Answer: B Explanation: Self-efficacy is the confidence in one’s capacity to perform a specific activity. Question 25. According to Deci and Ryan’s Self-Determination Theory, which need is NOT one of the three basic psychological needs? A) Autonomy B) Competence C) Relatedness D) Prestige Answer: D Explanation: The three needs are autonomy, competence, and relatedness; prestige is not included. Question 26. An inclusive PE lesson for students with visual impairments should prioritize: A) Loud music B) Verbal cues and tactile demonstrations C) Complex visual diagrams D) Fast-paced games Answer: B Explanation: Verbal and tactile information compensates for reduced visual input. Question 27. Effective instructional communication in PE includes all EXCEPT: A) Clear, concise language B) Demonstrations C) Overloading students with jargon D) Consistent eye contact Answer: C Explanation: Jargon hampers understanding; clear language is essential. Question 28. Specific, timely, and constructive feedback is most likely to: A) Decrease student motivation B) Promote skill refinement C) Confuse learners D) Increase test anxiety Answer: B Explanation: Targeted feedback helps learners adjust performance and improve. Question 29. When communicating student progress to parents, the most professional approach is to: A) Send a brief email with grades only B) Provide a detailed report highlighting strengths, areas for growth, and next steps C) Call only
when there is a problem D) Share confidential student data publicly Answer: B Explanation: Detailed, balanced reports foster collaboration and respect privacy. Question 30. A lesson plan aligned with national standards should first identify: A) The exact equipment list B) The assessment method C) The learning objectives D) The classroom decoration D) The learning objectives Answer: C Explanation: Objectives guide content, instruction, and assessment. Question 31. Direct instruction is most appropriate when teaching: A) Complex problem-solving B) Basic skill acquisition that requires clear demonstration C) Student-led inquiry D) Open-ended projects Answer: B Explanation: Direct instruction provides clear modeling and guided practice for foundational skills. Question 32. Inquiry-based learning in PE most effectively develops: A) Memorization of rules B) Critical thinking and problem solving through exploration C) Repetitive drills D) Passive observation Answer: B Explanation: Students discover principles by experimenting, enhancing cognition. Question 33. Cooperative learning benefits PE students by: A) Reducing physical activity B) Encouraging competition only C) Promoting teamwork, communication, and shared responsibility D) Isolating learners Answer: C Explanation: Structured group tasks foster social skills and collective achievement. Question 34. When adapting a unit for a student with cerebral palsy, a teacher should primarily: A) Reduce the intensity of all activities B) Modify the environment, provide assistive devices, and adjust task difficulty C) Exclude the student from group activities D) Keep the same expectations without change Answer: B Explanation: Adaptations maintain participation while respecting the student’s abilities. Question 35. Technology that can instantly display a student’s heart rate during a fitness circuit is an example of: A) Formative assessment B) Summative assessment C) Diagnostic assessment D) Summative evaluation Answer: A Explanation: Real-time data informs immediate instructional adjustments (formative).
Question 43. Advocacy for PE in schools often requires teachers to: A) Remain silent about curriculum decisions B) Present research on health benefits to administrators and policymakers C) Focus only on their own classes D) Avoid interacting with parents Answer: B Explanation: Evidence-based advocacy promotes the importance of PE. Question 44. Using a video analysis app to break down a student’s basketball jump shot primarily supports which instructional goal? A) Reducing class time B) Enhancing visual feedback and self-assessment C) Increasing paperwork D) Limiting student movement Answer: B Explanation: Video allows students to see biomechanical details and self-correct. Question 45. Professional networking through social media platforms can help a PE teacher by: A) Sharing confidential student data B) Accessing current research, lesson ideas, and collaborative opportunities C) Replacing classroom instruction D) Avoiding in-person meetings Answer: B Explanation: Online communities provide resources and professional growth. Question 46. The primary function of the sympathetic nervous system during exercise is to: A) Promote digestion B) Decrease heart rate C) Mobilize energy stores and increase heart rate D) Enhance relaxation Answer: C Explanation: Sympathetic activation prepares the body for activity by raising heart rate and releasing glucose. Question 47. The term “afterburn” (EPOC) refers to: A) The oxygen deficit during rest B) The excess post-exercise oxygen consumption that continues to burn calories after activity C) The immediate oxygen uptake during high-intensity work D) The amount of oxygen stored in muscles Answer: B Explanation: EPOC reflects increased metabolism after intense exercise. Question 48. Which type of muscle fiber is most resistant to fatigue and is predominant in endurance activities? A) Type I (slow-twitch) B) Type IIa (fast oxidative) C) Type IIb (fast glycolytic) D) Type III (intermediate) Answer: A Explanation: Type I fibers have high mitochondrial density and are suited for prolonged, low-intensity work. Question 49. The “overload principle” dictates that to improve fitness, a trainer must: A) Keep workload constant B) Gradually increase the stress placed on the
body C) Decrease intensity over time D) Avoid any changes in routine Answer: B Explanation: Incremental increases provoke adaptation. Question 50. In a progressive resistance program, the “repetition maximum” (RM) is defined as: A) The total number of sets performed B) The heaviest weight a person can lift once C) The number of repetitions completed before fatigue D) The lightest weight used in a session Answer: B Explanation: 1-RM is the maximal load that can be moved one time with proper form. Question 51. The term “motor learning” is best described as: A) Genetic inheritance of movement patterns B) The process of acquiring and refining motor skills through practice C) The degeneration of skill with age D) The immediate response to a stimulus Answer: B Explanation: Motor learning involves long-term changes in the capability to perform movements. Question 52. Which factor most strongly influences the rate of skill acquisition in children? A) Height B) Prior experience and quality of instruction C) Shoe size D) Eye color Answer: B Explanation: Experience and effective teaching accelerate learning. Question 53. In the context of spatial awareness, “proxemics” refers to: A) Understanding body part locations B) Perception of distance and personal space C) Timing of movements D) Force production Answer: B Explanation: Proxemics concerns how individuals perceive and use space around them. Question 54. The “force-time” relationship in a jump indicates that: A) Greater force applied over a short time yields higher jump height B) Longer contact time with the ground always improves jump height C) Force and time are unrelated D) Minimal force is needed for maximal height Answer: A Explanation: Impulse (force × time) determines take-off velocity; high force over brief contact maximizes height. Question 55. Which of the following is a non-locomotor skill? A) Skipping B) Galloping C) Twisting D) Hopping Answer: C Explanation: Twisting involves movement in place without traveling. Question 56. In volleyball, a “set” is performed using which hand position? A) Overhand with fingers spread B) Underhand with a cupped hand C) Palm flat against
Question 64. A “warm-up” should primarily aim to: A) Exhaust the athlete B) Increase body temperature, joint range of motion, and mental readiness C) Teach new tactics D) Perform maximal lifts Answer: B Explanation: Warm-ups prepare physiological and psychological systems for activity. Question 65. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation in PE? A) Participation for a reward B) Exercising because it feels enjoyable C) Competing for a trophy D) Working to avoid punishment Answer: B Explanation: Intrinsic motivation arises from internal satisfaction. Question 66. The “zone of proximal development” (ZPD) refers to: A) The range of movements a student can perform alone B) The gap between current ability and potential with guidance C) The distance a student can run in 12 minutes D) The amount of weight a student can lift safely Answer: B Explanation: Vygotsky’s ZPD is the space where learning occurs with support. Question 67. In a cooperative learning structure, “positive interdependence” means that: A) Students work independently B) Success depends on each member’s contribution C) Only the strongest athlete leads D) Grading is based on individual performance only Answer: B Explanation: Group members rely on one another to achieve the goal. Question 68. Which assessment format best measures a student’s skill execution in a gymnastics routine? A) Multiple-choice test B) Written essay C) Performance rubric D) True-false quiz Answer: C Explanation: Rubrics capture qualitative aspects of skill performance. Question 69. The “body mass index” (BMI) formula is: A) Weight (lb) ÷ Height (in)² × 703 B) Weight (kg) ÷ Height (m)² C) Weight (kg) × Height (cm) D) Height (m) ÷ Weight (kg) Answer: B Explanation: BMI = mass (kg) / height (m)². Question 70. Which of the following is considered a health-related component of fitness? A) Agility B) Balance C) Muscular endurance D) Hand-eye coordination Answer: C Explanation: Muscular endurance, along with cardio-respiratory fitness, flexibility, muscular strength, and body composition, are health-related components.
Question 71. The “principle of progression” states that: A) Exercise intensity should remain static B) Training load should be gradually increased to continue adaptations C) Overload is unnecessary D) Decreasing load improves performance Answer: B Explanation: Progressive overload ensures continued improvement. Question 72. In a “circuit training” session, the primary benefit is: A) Skill isolation B) Continuous aerobic stimulus with varied muscle groups C) Single-muscle focus D) Reduced equipment use only Answer: B Explanation: Circuits combine strength and cardio, promoting overall conditioning. Question 73. The “talk test” indicates moderate intensity when: A) The student can sing loudly B) The student can speak only single words C) The student can converse comfortably D) The student cannot speak at all Answer: C Explanation: Comfortable conversation denotes moderate exertion. Question 74. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration during PE? A) Increased urine output B) Clear skin C) Dry mouth and thirst D) Warm hands Answer: C Explanation: Thirst, dry mouth, and reduced urine are early dehydration signs. Question 75. A “skill-drill” that incorporates both the forehand and backhand in tennis is an example of: A) Isolated practice B) Random practice C) Blocked practice D) Whole-skill practice Answer: D Explanation: Whole-skill practice integrates multiple components of the skill. Question 76. In a “team-toss” game, which teaching strategy best promotes inclusive participation? A) Assigning a single scorer B) Rotating all roles among students C) Allowing only the fastest players to throw D) Ignoring less skilled players Answer: B Explanation: Role rotation ensures every student experiences the activity. Question 77. The “law of diminishing returns” in physical training suggests that: A) Gains increase exponentially over time B) Early training yields larger improvements than later training C) No improvement occurs after the first session D) All athletes improve at the same rate Answer: B Explanation: Initial adaptations are rapid; later gains require greater stimulus.
Question 85. Which of the following is a sign of heat stroke? A) Mild sweating B) Cool skin C) High body temperature with altered mental status D) Slight fatigue Answer: C Explanation: Heat stroke is a medical emergency marked by hyperthermia and CNS dysfunction. Question 86. The “principle of individuality” in exercise prescription means that: A) All students follow the same program B) Programs should be tailored to each person’s abilities, goals, and health status C) Only elite athletes need individualized plans D) Group fitness is always superior Answer: B Explanation: Individual differences dictate customized training. Question 87. When teaching a new skill, “modeling” refers to: A) Allowing students to discover the skill alone B) The teacher demonstrating the correct performance C) Using only written instructions D) Ignoring student errors Answer: B Explanation: Modeling provides a visual reference for learners. Question 88. The “GPA” in a PE context most commonly stands for: A) Gross Physical Activity B) General Performance Assessment C) Grade Point Average D) General Physical Aptitude Answer: C Explanation: GPA denotes the academic grade point average, sometimes used in reporting PE grades. Question 89. Which of the following is an example of a “skill-specific” warm-up? A) Light jogging B) Jumping jacks C) Dribbling drills before a basketball game D) Stretching major muscle groups Answer: C Explanation: Practicing sport-specific movements prepares the neuromuscular system for the upcoming activity. Question 90. In a “dual-task” assessment, students are required to: A) Perform two motor tasks simultaneously B) Complete a written test only C) Run a single lap D) Sit quietly for ten minutes Answer: A Explanation: Dual-task tests evaluate coordination and cognitive-motor integration. Question 91. The “principle of specificity” explains why: A) General fitness improves all sports equally B) Training must mimic the movement patterns and energy systems of the target activity C) Overtraining is beneficial D) Rest days are unnecessary Answer: B Explanation: Adaptations are specific to the type of stress applied.
Question 92. Which piece of equipment is essential for measuring a student’s maximal oxygen uptake (VO₂max) in a field setting? A) Stethoscope B) Hand dynamometer C) Portable metabolic cart D) Tape measure Answer: C Explanation: Metabolic carts assess gas exchange, providing VO₂max data. Question 93. A “stretch-shortening cycle” is most relevant to which type of movement? A) Static holding B) Explosive jumping C) Slow walking D) Isometric contraction Answer: B Explanation: The SSC utilizes elastic energy during rapid stretch-followed-by-shortening actions like jumps. Question 94. Which of the following is a common sign of an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury? A) Numbness in fingers B) Swelling and a “popping” sensation in the knee C) Pain in the lower back D) Tingling in the toes Answer: B Explanation: ACL tears often involve audible pop, swelling, and instability. Question 95. The “American Heart Association” recommends that children engage in at least how many minutes of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity each day? A) 30 minutes B) 45 minutes C) 60 minutes D) 90 minutes Answer: C Explanation: 60 minutes daily is the AHA guideline for youth. Question 96. Which term describes the ability to change direction quickly while maintaining control? A) Agility B) Flexibility C) Endurance D) Power Answer: A Explanation: Agility combines speed, balance, and coordination for rapid directional changes. Question 97. The “principle of accommodation” in motor learning states that: A) Skills improve without practice B) Repeated practice leads to automaticity C) Learners adjust their movements in response to errors D) Only innate ability matters Answer: C Explanation: Accommodation involves modifying performance based on feedback. Question 98. In a “safety drill” for water activities, the primary focus is to teach students how to: A) Swim faster B) Perform synchronized routines C) Perform a safe entry and exit and rescue techniques D) Dive from the highest platform Answer: C Explanation: Water safety drills emphasize entry/exit and emergency response.
Question 106. The “principle of load” in exercise prescription primarily refers to: A) The number of repetitions B) The amount of weight or resistance used C) The duration of rest periods D) The type of music played Answer: B Explanation: Load denotes the external resistance applied during training. Question 107. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “closed skill”? A) Performed in a predictable environment B) Dependent on opponent actions C) Requires constant adaptation D) Never repeated Answer: A Explanation: Closed skills occur in stable settings (e.g., free-throw shooting). Question 108. In a “high-intensity interval training” (HIIT) session, work periods are typically: A) Longer than recovery periods B) Equal to recovery periods C) Shorter than recovery periods D) Non-existent Answer: C Explanation: HIIT alternates brief, maximal effort with longer or equal rest. Question 109. Which of the following is a primary component of “psychosocial development” relevant to PE? A) Lung capacity B) Self-concept and social identity C) Bone density D) Visual acuity Answer: B Explanation: PE influences self-esteem, peer relationships, and identity formation. Question 110. The “principle of chunking” in motor learning advises that teachers should: A) Teach the entire skill at once B) Break complex skills into smaller, manageable parts C) Avoid repetition D) Use only verbal cues Answer: B Explanation: Chunking facilitates mastery by focusing on subcomponents. Question 111. Which of the following is an example of “positive reinforcement” in a PE classroom? A Question 111. Which of the following is an example of “positive reinforcement” in a PE classroom? A) Ignoring a student’s effort B) Giving a student a high-five after a correct technique C) Removing a student from activity D) Criticizing a missed pass Answer: B Explanation: Positive reinforcement rewards desired behavior, increasing its likelihood. Question 112. The “principle of transfer of training” suggests that skills learned in one context: A) Never apply elsewhere B) Can improve performance in similar
activities C) Only work in the original setting D) Reduce overall ability Answer: B Explanation: Transfer occurs when learning benefits related tasks. Question 113. Which of the following is a reliable method for measuring a student’s resting heart rate? A) Counting beats for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 B) Estimating by feeling the pulse C) Using a blood pressure cuff D) Asking the student to guess Answer: A Explanation: Counting beats over a known interval and extrapolating provides an accurate rate. Question 114. In the context of “inclusive PE,” the term “universal design for learning” (UDL) means: A) Designing lessons only for high-achieving students B) Creating flexible instructional methods that accommodate diverse learners C) Using only one teaching style D) Excluding adaptations Answer: B Explanation: UDL promotes multiple means of representation, action, and engagement. Question 115. Which of the following is a primary benefit of “peer-assessment” in a skill-based activity? A) Reduces teacher workload only B) Encourages students to reflect on performance and give constructive feedback C) Guarantees higher grades D) Eliminates need for rubrics Answer: B Explanation: Peer assessment develops critical observation and communication skills. Question 116. The “principle of specificity” is most relevant when designing a program to improve: A) General health only B) A specific sport’s speed, power, and skill demands C) Any activity without modification D) Only flexibility Answer: B Explanation: Tailoring training to the exact demands of a sport maximizes relevant adaptations. Question 117. Which of the following best illustrates “motor imagery” as a learning technique? A) Watching a video of a skill B) Mentally rehearsing the movement without physical execution C) Performing the skill slowly D) Using a weighted implement Answer: B Explanation: Motor imagery involves visualizing the movement to reinforce neural pathways. Question 118. During a “skill-drill” for dribbling in basketball, the teacher uses “progressive difficulty” by: A) Starting with a stationary dribble, then adding movement, then adding defenders Answer: A Explanation: Gradually increasing challenge supports skill acquisition.
Question 126. Which of the following is a sign of a concussion during a PE class? A) Persistent headache, dizziness, and confusion after a head impact B) Temporary muscle soreness C) Mild fatigue after running D) Slight nosebleed Answer: A Explanation: Concussion symptoms include headache, dizziness, and cognitive changes. Question 127. The “FITT” principle helps teachers design: A) Classroom seating charts B) Exercise programs that specify Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type C) Grading rubrics D) School schedules Answer: B Explanation: FITT guides the structure of physical activity prescriptions. Question 128. In a “skill-analysis” of a volleyball serve, the teacher should assess: A) Only the height of the net B) Technique, timing, footwork, arm swing, and follow-through C) The color of the ball D) The number of spectators Answer: C Explanation: Comprehensive analysis includes all components of the serve motion. Question 129. Which of the following is a primary goal of “health-related fitness” testing? A) Ranking students against each other B) Identifying health risks and tracking improvements C) Selecting team captains D) Determining favorite sports Answer: B Explanation: Health-related tests help monitor cardiovascular, muscular, and body composition status. Question 130. The “principle of progressive overload” differs from “principle of specificity” in that overload focuses on: A) Changing the type of activity B) Increasing the magnitude of the training stimulus C) Maintaining the same workload D) Reducing volume Answer: B Explanation: Overload emphasizes increasing load, while specificity emphasizes matching the activity. Question 131. Which of the following is an effective strategy for managing transitions between stations in a circuit? A) No timing, let students finish at will B) Use a visual timer and clear verbal cue to signal change C) Allow students to linger D) Change stations randomly without notice Answer: B Explanation: Timers and signals create predictable, orderly transitions. Question 132. In teaching a new skill, “random practice” is beneficial because it: A) Reduces learning B) Enhances retention and transfer by varying conditions C) Keeps students bored D) Eliminates feedback opportunities Answer: B Explanation: Random practice forces adaptation, improving long-term retention.
Question 133. The “principle of accommodation” in motor learning suggests that learners will: A) Remain static B) Adjust their movements in response to errors C) Ignore feedback D) Only rely on innate ability Answer: B Explanation: Accommodation involves modifying performance based on error detection. Question 134. Which of the following best defines “agility”? A) Ability to sustain effort for long periods B) Ability to change direction quickly while maintaining control C) Ability to lift heavy loads D) Ability to stretch muscles far Answer: B Explanation: Agility combines speed, balance, and coordination for rapid direction changes. Question 135. The “principle of variation” recommends that teachers: A) Use identical drills each day B) Vary activities, intensity, and equipment to prevent monotony C) Never change lesson plans D) Focus only on one sport Answer: B Explanation: Variation maintains motivation and promotes broader adaptations. Question 136. Which of the following is an example of “intrinsic motivation” for a student in PE? A) Playing to win a prize B) Exercising because it feels enjoyable C) Participating to avoid detention D) Competing for a trophy Answer: B Explanation: Intrinsic motivation arises from internal satisfaction. Question 137. In a “fitness-testing” scenario, the “reliability” of a test is demonstrated when: A) Scores vary widely each administration B) Scores are consistent across multiple trials C) The test measures a different construct D) The test is difficult to understand Answer: B Explanation: Reliability indicates stability of results over repeated measures. Question 138. The “principle of individuality” requires teachers to: A) Provide identical workouts for all students B) Adjust intensity, volume, and progression based on each student’s fitness level C) Ignore personal differences D) Use only one exercise modality Answer: B Explanation: Individualization tailors programs to personal capacities. Question 139. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration during outdoor PE? A) Increased urine output B) Cool, moist skin C) Dry mouth and thirst D) Elevated energy levels Answer: C Explanation: Dry mouth and thirst are early indicators of fluid loss.