Download PrepIQ Pure Certified FlashArray Implementation Specialist Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Question 1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a Site Readiness Assessment before installing a Pure FlashArray? A) To benchmark storage performance B) To verify power, cooling, and rack space requirements C) To configure host multipathing settings D) To install the Pure1 management console Answer: B Explanation: The Site Readiness Assessment ensures that the data center can supply the necessary voltage/amps, cooling capacity, and physical rack space for the FlashArray. Question 2. In the Pure Storage Implementation Workbook, the “Management IP” field is used to configure which component? A) Host initiator ports B) Array management interface (VIP) C) Replication target address D) NTP server address Answer: B Explanation: The Management IP is assigned to the Virtual IP (VIP) that administrators use to access the array’s web UI or CLI. Question 3. Which VLAN setting must be verified on the Ethernet switch for iSCSI data ports to avoid packet loss? A) VLAN trunking disabled B) VLAN ID set to 1 C) VLAN tagging enabled for the data VLAN D) VLAN spanning tree disabled Answer: C Explanation: Enabling VLAN tagging for the data VLAN ensures that iSCSI traffic is correctly identified and segregated on the network. Question 4. What MTU size is recommended for Jumbo Frames on Pure FlashArray data interfaces?
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
A) 1500 bytes B) 9000 bytes C) 1600 bytes D) 4096 bytes Answer: B Explanation: Jumbo Frames of 9000 bytes reduce CPU overhead and improve throughput for large storage I/O flows. Question 5. During physical inspection, which component indicates a DirectFlash Shelf (DFS) is present? A) A 2-U chassis with front-panel LEDs B) A rack-mountable cabinet labeled “DFS” with NVMe connectors C) A metal cage with SAS backplane only D) A standalone power distribution unit Answer: B Explanation: DirectFlash Shelves are identified by their NVMe connectors and the “DFS” label on the rack-mountable cabinet. Question 6. Which of the following is NOT a step in preparing the rack for mounting a FlashArray chassis? A) Installing the rail brackets B) Verifying the rack’s weight capacity C) Connecting the host servers before mounting D) Aligning the chassis with the rack’s vertical guides Answer: C Explanation: Host servers should be connected after the array is securely mounted; connecting them beforehand is not part of rack preparation. Question 7. Redundant Power Supply Units (PSUs) should be connected to independent power sources to achieve which benefit? A) Faster array boot time B) Increased storage capacity
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Explanation: The Management port provides a dedicated interface for administrators to manage the array. Question 11. Which command is used to list the hardware components and their health status on a Pure FlashArray? A) purearray list B) purehw list C) purevol list D) purehost list Answer: B Explanation: purehw list displays all hardware components and indicates whether they are healthy, failed, or missing. Question 12. When initializing a new FlashArray via the CLI, the first step is to: A) Set the NTP server address B) Create a storage bucket C) Assign a unique Array Name D) Enable Pure1 connectivity Answer: C Explanation: The Array Name uniquely identifies the system and is required before any further configuration. Question 13. Which service must be configured to ensure the array can send email alerts for critical events? A) DNS B) NTP C) SMTP D) DHCP Answer: C Explanation: SMTP settings allow the FlashArray to deliver email notifications to administrators.
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Question 14. Pure1 “Phone Home” functionality primarily provides which benefit? A) Automatic firmware upgrades B) Real-time performance analytics and support case creation C) Host provisioning scripts D) Direct access to raw storage devices Answer: B Explanation: Phone Home sends telemetry to Pure1, enabling analytics, proactive alerts, and streamlined support. Question 15. After a fresh hardware install, which command verifies that all components are “admitted” into the system? A) purearray list –status admitted B) purehw list –admitted C) purearray list –detail D) purehw list –detail Answer: D Explanation: purehw list –detail shows admission status for each component, confirming they are recognized by the array. Question 16. To insert a new DirectFlash Module (DFM) into an empty slot, the correct procedure is to: A) Power down the array, insert the DFM, then power up B) Use the “purearray add-module” command while the array is online C) Insert the DFM while the array is powered on and run “purearray admit-module” D) Replace an existing DFM with the new one without any command Answer: C Explanation: DFMs can be hot-added; after physical insertion, purearray admit- module registers the new capacity. Question 17. When adding an expansion shelf non-disruptively, which state must the shelf be in before the array can recognize it?
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
D) Removing all expansion shelves Answer: B Explanation: Ensuring all hardware components are healthy prevents upgrade failures and maintains availability. Question 21. During a Purity software upgrade, which command uploads the upgrade package to the array? A) pureadmin upload-package B) purearray upgrade-load C) pureupgrade upload D) purehost import-upgrade Answer: A Explanation: pureadmin upload-package transfers the Purity upgrade bundle to the array’s local storage. Question 22. The “swing” method for controller upgrades involves: A) Simultaneously replacing both controllers while the array is offline B) Swapping the primary controller with a standby, then upgrading the former primary C) Using a temporary external controller to host data during the upgrade D) Upgrading the firmware only, not the hardware Answer: B Explanation: The swing method moves workloads to the standby controller, allowing the primary to be upgraded without downtime. Question 23. In an XFORM (hardware transformation) from SAS to NVMe, which component must be replaced? A) Management VIP B) DirectFlash Modules C) SAS backplane and associated controllers D) NTP server configuration Answer: C
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Explanation: XFORM replaces the SAS backplane and controllers with NVMe-compatible hardware. Question 24. After completing a software upgrade, which command confirms that the Purity version is consistent across all controllers? A) purearray list –version B) purehost list –controller C) pureversion show –all D) purearray list –detail Answer: D Explanation: purearray list –detail displays the Purity version for each controller, confirming consistency. Question 25. A “stale” hardware entry after an upgrade typically indicates: A) A newly added DFM not yet admitted B) A component that was removed but still appears in the configuration C) A failed PSU that needs replacement D) An outdated firmware version on a controller Answer: B Explanation: Stale entries are remnants of hardware that were removed but not yet purged from the system’s inventory. Question 26. The final health check script that collects logs for Pure Storage Support is commonly called: A) purediag collect B) purelog bundle C) pure1 health-check D) purearray diagnostics Answer: A Explanation: purediag collect gathers system logs, hardware status, and configuration files into a bundle for support analysis.
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
B) The final network diagram, capacity, and any deviations from the plan C) The host operating system versions D. The warranty expiration date Answer: B Explanation: Comprehensive documentation includes network topology, installed capacity, and any changes made during deployment. Question 31. When purehw list shows a SAS path status of “failed,” the most likely cause is: A) Incorrect NTP configuration B) A disconnected or faulty SAS cable C) An outdated DNS entry D) Insufficient VLAN tagging Answer: B Explanation: A “failed” SAS path indicates a physical connectivity issue, such as a bad cable or connector. Question 32. If the array’s Management VIP conflicts with an existing IP address on the network, the resulting symptom is: A) Hosts cannot see any volumes B) The array will refuse to boot C) CLI and Web UI access will be denied D) Replication will pause automatically Answer: C Explanation: IP conflict prevents the management interface from binding, blocking administrative access. Question 33. Which firewall rule must be opened to allow Pure1 Phone Home connectivity? A) TCP 22 (SSH) outbound B) UDP 123 (NTP) inbound C) TCP 443 outbound to *.pure1.purestorage.com
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
D) TCP 3260 inbound for iSCSI Answer: C Explanation: Pure1 uses HTTPS (TCP 443) for telemetry and must be reachable from the array. Question 34. During a host connectivity validation, a “multipath -ll” output shows only one active path. Which immediate action should be taken? A) Disable the array’s replication feature B) Verify that both host HBAs are connected to separate array ports C) Increase the array’s NTP sync interval D) Reboot the FlashArray Answer: B Explanation: A single active path suggests a missing or misconfigured second HBA connection; verifying cabling resolves the issue. Question 35. The purpose of configuring NTP on a FlashArray is to: A) Synchronize time for accurate logging and alert timestamps B) Enable secure iSCSI authentication C) Provide DNS name resolution for hosts D) Manage power usage across PSUs Answer: A Explanation: Accurate timekeeping is essential for log correlation, alerting, and troubleshooting. Question 36. Which of the following best describes the role of a DirectFlash Module (DFM) in the array architecture? A) Provides compute resources for data reduction B) Holds the flash memory that delivers raw storage capacity C) Acts as a network switch for iSCSI traffic D) Stores configuration files for the array Answer: B
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Question 40. After replacing a dead Power Supply Unit (PSU), which indicator confirms successful redundancy? A) The array’s NTP sync status changes to “OK” B) Both PSU LEDs show solid green C) The Management VIP address changes D) The array automatically restarts Answer: B Explanation: Green LEDs on both PSUs indicate they are powered and operating redundantly. Question 41. Which protocol is used by Pure FlashArray for host-initiated replication to a remote array? A) NFS B) SMB C) SnapMirror over iSCSI/FC D. RSync over Ethernet Answer: C Explanation: Pure uses SnapMirror, which operates over iSCSI or Fibre Channel, to replicate snapshots between arrays. Question 42. When configuring DNS for the array, which record type is mandatory for the Management VIP to resolve properly? A) MX record B) A record C) CNAME record D) PTR record Answer: B Explanation: An A record maps the Management VIP’s hostname to its IP address, enabling name resolution. Question 43. The “purearray list –detail” output shows “Controller Model: X200”. What does this indicate?
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
A) The array is using the legacy SAS architecture B) The array is running the X-series controller generation C) The array is in a failed state D) The array has NVMe-oF enabled Answer: B Explanation: “X200” denotes the X-series controller hardware, which is SAS-based. Question 44. Which of the following actions is required before performing a shelf evacuation? A) Disable all host access to the array B) Ensure that sufficient free space exists on remaining shelves C) Upgrade the array’s firmware to the latest version D) Change the array’s Management VIP Answer: B Explanation: Data must have available space to be relocated; ensuring free capacity prevents evacuation failures. Question 45. During a hardware transformation (XFORM), the array’s Purity version must be at least: A) 5.0. B) 6.2. C) 7.0. D) 8.1. Answer: C Explanation: XFORM procedures require Purity version 7.0.0 or newer to support the NVMe architecture. Question 46. Which CLI command disables the array’s automatic email alerts? A) purealert disable –email B. purearray set –alert-email false
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Explanation: NVMe-oF leverages RDMA over Ethernet, delivering superior performance compared to iSCSI. Question 50. Which log file contains information about array boot processes and is useful for troubleshooting failed power-on events? A) /var/log/purearray.log B) /var/log/messages C) /var/log/pureboot.log D) /var/log/syslog Answer: C Explanation: pureboot.log captures detailed boot sequence information. Question 51. During a pre-installation network review, which setting ensures that iSCSI traffic does not get fragmented? A) Enable flow control on the switch B) Set the switch port speed to 10 Gbps C) Configure MTU to 9000 bytes on both switch and array ports D) Disable all VLANs on the data ports Answer: C Explanation: Jumbo Frames (MTU 9000) prevent fragmentation of large iSCSI packets. Question 52. When adding a new DirectFlash Shelf, the array must be told to rescan for new hardware. Which command performs this action? A) purearray rescan-shelf B) purehw rescan C) purearray discover-shelf D) purehw list –refresh Answer: B Explanation: purehw rescan forces the array to detect newly attached hardware.
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Question 53. Which of the following is a symptom of a mis-configured replication port on the array? A) Host multipathing shows “failed” paths B) SnapMirror replication jobs stay in “queued” state indefinitely C) Array fails to obtain an NTP timestamp D) Capacity reports negative values Answer: B Explanation: Replication ports must be reachable; a mis-configuration stalls SnapMirror jobs. Question 54. The “purearray set –ntp-servers” command accepts which type of input? A) A single IP address only B) A comma-separated list of NTP server IPs or hostnames C) A DNS domain name that resolves to multiple servers automatically D) An URL to an NTP service endpoint Answer: B Explanation: The command allows a comma-separated list, enabling redundancy. Question 55. Which step is essential after replacing a dead SFP transceiver on a Fibre Channel port? A) Run “purehw list” to confirm the port status changes to “healthy” B. Reboot the array to re-enumerate the port C. Change the Management VIP address D. Update the array’s DNS records Answer: A Explanation: purehw list will show the updated health status of the FC port after replacement. Question 56. In the Pure1 Dashboard, the “Capacity Forecast” widget uses which data source? A) Historical host I/O patterns
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Write groups are formed by a set of DFMs that collaboratively handle I/O, providing parallelism. Question 60. If purearray list –detail shows “Replication Enabled: false”, what must be done to enable replication? A) Set the array’s Management VIP to a public IP B) Run purearray set –replication true and configure a remote target C) Reboot the array with a special boot flag D) Install an additional DirectFlash Shelf Answer: B Explanation: Enabling replication requires setting the flag and defining a remote array as the target. Question 61. During an NDU, which component can be upgraded without taking the array offline? A) Primary controller firmware only B) DirectFlash Modules (DFMs) via hot-add C) Management VIP address D) Rack mounting rails Answer: B Explanation: DFMs support hot-add, allowing capacity expansion during an NDU. Question 62. Which of the following is a prerequisite for enabling Pure Phone Home on a newly installed array? A) The array must have at least 10 TB of usable capacity B) An active internet connection and DNS resolution for *.pure1.purestorage.com C) All hosts must be registered in Pure1 first D) The array must run Purity version 5.0 or earlier Answer: B Explanation: Phone Home requires outbound internet access and DNS to reach Pure1 services.
Implementation Specialist Ultimate
Exam
Question 63. What is the effect of configuring an incorrect NTP server address on the array? A) The array will shut down after 24 hours B) Time-stamped logs may show inaccurate timestamps, affecting troubleshooting C) Replication will be disabled automatically D) The array will lose its Management VIP address Answer: B Explanation: Incorrect NTP leads to wrong system time, which can complicate log analysis. Question 64. When a host initiator reports “target not found” for an iSCSI volume, the most likely configuration error is: A) The array’s DNS server is unreachable B) The iSCSI target IQN is not exported to the host’s initiator IQN C) The array’s NTP service is disabled D) The array’s Management VIP is set to a duplicate IP Answer: B Explanation: iSCSI access is controlled via IQN mapping; if the host’s IQN is not authorized, the target appears missing. Question 65. Which command displays the current Purity version on each controller? A) purearray version B) purehw list –version C) purearray list –detail D) pureadmin show-version Answer: C Explanation: purearray list –detail includes the Purity version per controller. Question 66. In a multi-site deployment, which feature provides asynchronous replication of snapshots between arrays?
