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Exam
Question 1. Which part of 14 CFR Part 61 defines the privileges and limitations of a private pilot certificate? A) §61. B) §61. C) §61. D) §61. Answer: C Explanation: §61.127 specifically lists the privileges and limitations applicable to a private pilot certificate. Question 2. A private pilot must complete a flight review within how many calendar months to remain current? A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 24 months D) 36 months Answer: B Explanation: The FAA requires a flight review every 24 months, but a practical test may be taken within 12 months of the last review for currency. Question 3. Which medical certificate class is required for a private pilot operating only VFR flights in the United States? A) Class 1 B) Class 2 C) Class 3
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D) BasicMed only Answer: C Explanation: A Class 3 medical certificate is the minimum requirement for private pilots; BasicMed can be used in lieu of a medical if the pilot meets its conditions. Question 4. Under 14 CFR Part 91, who holds ultimate responsibility for the safety of the flight? A) The aircraft owner B) The flight instructor C) The Pilot-in-Command (PIC) D) The air traffic controller Answer: C Explanation: The PIC is legally responsible for the safety and operation of the flight. Question 5. What is the maximum permissible blood alcohol concentration (BAC) for a private pilot operating an aircraft? A) 0.02% B) 0.04% C) 0.08% D) 0.10% Answer: B Explanation: FAA regulations set the limit at 0.04% BAC or any detectable amount that impairs performance.
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D) Weight-and-Balance Data Answer: C Explanation: The POH is not required by ARROW; the required documents are Airworthiness, Registration, Radio license (if required), Operating limitations, and Weight-and-Balance. Question 9. According to NTSB Part 830, within how many days must a pilot report an aircraft accident? A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 5 days Answer: C Explanation: The NTSB requires reporting of accidents within 72 hours of occurrence. Question 10. Which of the four aerodynamic forces increases directly with airspeed squared? A) Lift B) Weight C) Thrust D) Drag Answer: D Explanation: Parasite drag varies with the square of airspeed, while lift varies linearly with dynamic pressure.
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Question 11. What term describes an aircraft’s tendency to return to its original attitude after a disturbance? A) Dynamic stability B) Static stability C) Longitudinal stability D) Directional stability Answer: B Explanation: Static stability is the initial tendency to return to equilibrium after a disturbance. Question 12. According to Bernoulli’s principle, why does an airfoil generate lift? A) Higher pressure on the upper surface pushes the wing up B) Lower pressure on the upper surface creates upward force C) Air molecules are attracted to the wing’s curvature D) The wing’s weight creates a suction effect Answer: B Explanation: Faster airflow over the curved upper surface reduces pressure, creating lift. Question 13. At what angle of attack does a typical light aircraft reach its critical stall angle? A) 5°–10° B) 10°–15° C) 15°–20° D) 20°–25°
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Question 16. How does load factor affect stall speed in a coordinated turn? A) Stall speed decreases with higher load factor B) Stall speed remains unchanged C) Stall speed increases proportionally to the square root of load factor D) Stall speed doubles at any load factor above 1 Answer: C Explanation: Stall speed increases by the square root of the load factor (√n). Question 17. Which recovery step is performed first when a spin is entered? A) Apply full opposite rudder B) Reduce power to idle C) Push the control stick forward D) Roll the aircraft upright Answer: C Explanation: The first action in spin recovery is to reduce the angle of attack by moving the stick forward. Question 18. In a reciprocating engine, what is the primary function of the magneto? A) To mix fuel and air B) To provide spark for ignition C) To regulate oil pressure
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D) To drive the cooling fan Answer: B Explanation: Magnetos generate the high-voltage spark needed for cylinder ignition, independent of the aircraft’s electrical system. Question 19. Which fuel grade is recommended for most certified light aircraft using 100LL? A) 87 octane B) 89 octane C) 91 octane D) 100 octane Answer: C Explanation: 91 octane (or higher) is the minimum approved grade for 100LL avgas. Question 20. Vapor lock in a carbureted engine is most likely to occur under which condition? A) Low altitude, cold temperature B) High altitude, high temperature C) Low RPM, low manifold pressure D) High RPM, high manifold pressure Answer: B Explanation: High ambient temperature and reduced air density at altitude increase the chance of fuel vaporizing in the lines, causing vapor lock.
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D) Horizontal Situation Indicator Answer: B Explanation: The heading indicator, also called the directional gyro, displays magnetic heading. Question 24. In the event of a complete electrical failure, which instrument remains operational in most light aircraft? A) Airspeed Indicator B) Altimeter (if pressure source is intact) C) Turn Coordinator D) Magnetic compass Answer: D Explanation: The magnetic compass does not rely on electricity and will continue to function. Question 25. What is the primary risk associated with carbon monoxide buildup in the cabin heating system? A) Fire hazard B) Hypoxia-like symptoms C) Engine failure D) Instrument malfunction Answer: B Explanation: Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, producing symptoms similar to hypoxia and can be fatal.
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Question 26. Which type of front is characterized by a warm air mass advancing over a cold air mass, causing a gradual temperature rise behind the front? A) Cold front B) Warm front C) Stationary front D) Occluded front Answer: B Explanation: Warm fronts occur when warm air overtakes colder air, leading to a gradual increase in temperature. Question 27. A METAR report shows “SKC”. What does this indicate about cloud cover? A) Scattered clouds B) Few clouds C) Broken clouds D) Sky clear (no clouds) Answer: D Explanation: “SKC” means sky clear, i.e., no significant cloud cover. Question 28. In a TAF, the abbreviation “TEMPO” is used to indicate: A) Temporary weather conditions expected for a short period B) A permanent change in wind direction C) A forecast of turbulence only
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Question 31. Which class of airspace is designated as “controlled” but does not require ATC clearance for VFR entry? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class E (below 14,500 ft MSL) Answer: D Explanation: Class E is controlled airspace where VFR pilots may enter without explicit ATC clearance. Question 32. A “Restricted” area is identified on the chart by which symbol? A) Blue hatched circle with “R” B) Red solid line with “P” C) Yellow shading with “M” D) Green dashed line with “W” Answer: A Explanation: Restricted areas are shown as blue hatched circles with an “R” inside. Question 33. What does a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) typically protect? A) Military training ranges only B) High-altitude commercial traffic C) Persons, property or national security events D) Uncontrolled airports
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Answer: C Explanation: TFRs are issued to protect people or property during special events, disasters, or security operations. Question 34. When using a VOR, what does the “TO” indication on the OBS mean? A) You are flying away from the VOR B) The selected radial will guide you toward the VOR C) The VOR is out of service D) You are at the VOR station Answer: B Explanation: “TO” indicates that flying the selected radial will bring the aircraft toward the VOR. Question 35. Which GPS mode provides the most accurate position data for navigation without augmentation? A) WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) B) LORAN-C C) VOR/DME triangulation D) Dead-reckoning only Answer: A Explanation: WAAS-enabled GPS provides sub-meter accuracy through satellite-based augmentation. Question 36. In dead-reckoning navigation, what factor must be corrected for to determine true ground track?
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Explanation: The first “C” is to Confess—inform ATC that you have lost communications. Question 39. When calculating weight-and-balance, which arm is considered the reference datum? A) The aircraft’s center of gravity B) The leading edge of the wing C) An arbitrary point defined by the manufacturer D) The tail-plane hinge line Answer: C Explanation: The datum is a manufacturer-specified reference point from which all arm measurements are taken. Question 40. If an aircraft’s CG is located forward of the allowable envelope, what is the most likely effect? A] Increased stall speed and reduced controllability in pitch B] Decreased stall speed and easier rotation C] Tail-heavy tendency requiring more back pressure on the yoke D] No effect on handling characteristics Answer: A Explanation: A forward CG raises the stall speed and makes the aircraft less responsive in pitch, requiring more force to raise the nose. Question 41. In a performance chart, which factor has the greatest impact on takeoff distance at sea level on a hot day?
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A) Aircraft weight B) Wind component C) Runway slope D) Temperature (density altitude) Answer: D Explanation: High temperature reduces air density, increasing required takeoff distance. Question 42. What is the definition of density altitude? A) Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature B) True altitude above sea level C) Altitude where the aircraft’s engine produces maximum power D) Altitude indicated by the altimeter when set to 29.92 inHg Answer: A Explanation: Density altitude equals pressure altitude adjusted for temperature deviation from ISA. Question 43. Which of the following is a hazardous attitude identified in the FAA’s “Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge”? A) Analytical B) Macho C) Cautious D) Methodical Answer: B
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B) Graveyard spiral C) Coriolis illusion D) Vestibular illusion Answer: D Explanation: Vestibular (inner-ear) cues can be misleading during sustained turns, causing disorientation. Question 47. In the PAVE risk-management model, what does the “V” represent? A) Vehicle (aircraft) condition B) Visibility C) Velocity D) Variance of weather Answer: A Explanation: “V” stands for the vehicle, i.e., the aircraft’s condition and equipment. Question 48. A private pilot wishes to fly a passenger for compensation under BasicMed. Which statement is correct? A) BasicMed does not allow any compensation B) Compensation is allowed only for flight instruction C) Compensation is permitted if the pilot holds a current flight review D) BasicMed permits only charitable or reimbursable compensation, not profit Answer: D
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Explanation: Under BasicMed, a private pilot may receive compensation only for charitable, reimbursable, or shared-expense flights, not for profit. Question 49. Which right-of-way rule applies when a powered aircraft and a glider are converging at the same altitude? A) The glider must give way to the powered aircraft B) The powered aircraft must give way to the glider C) Both must maintain heading and climb D) Both must turn left Answer: B Explanation: According to FAR 91.111, a powered aircraft must give way to a glider, balloon, or aircraft with a higher priority. Question 50. What is the effect of a high-altitude “cold-front” on aircraft performance? A) Increases density altitude, reducing performance B) Decreases density altitude, improving performance C) Has no effect on density altitude D) Causes immediate engine flame-out Answer: B Explanation: A cold front lowers ambient temperature, decreasing density altitude and improving performance. Question 51. Which instrument uses a pitot tube and static ports to display indicated airspeed?
