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Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best distinguishes between an SLI, SLO, and SLA? A) SLIs define business requirements, SLOs are metrics, SLAs are engineering goals B) SLIs are measurements, SLOs are targets for those measurements, SLAs are contracts with consequences C) SLIs are contracts, SLOs are measurements, SLAs are targets D) SLIs and SLOs are the same, SLAs are legal agreements Answer: B Explanation: SLIs are specific measurements (like latency), SLOs set acceptable targets for those measurements, and SLAs are formal agreements with penalties for failing to meet the SLOs.
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Question 2. What is the primary goal of implementing monitoring in an SRE environment? A) To generate as many alerts as possible B) To measure system health and provide actionable insights C) To replace manual system checks D) To test new features Answer: B Explanation: Monitoring is about measuring system health and offering actionable data to maintain reliability. Question 3. When designing alerts, what is most important to reduce alert fatigue? A) Setting alerts for every metric
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Answer: A Explanation: Cloud Monitoring (formerly Stackdriver) is GCP’s primary monitoring and metrics visualization tool. Question 5. What is a blameless postmortem? A) Documenting incidents and assigning individual fault B) Analyzing incidents to improve systems without blaming people C) Firing the responsible engineer D) Ignoring incidents Answer: B Explanation: Blameless postmortems focus on understanding and improving systems rather than assigning blame.
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Question 6. Which method helps identify the root cause during a postmortem? A) The 5 Whys B) Code review C) Load testing D) A/B testing Answer: A Explanation: The 5 Whys technique is a root-cause analysis method used in incident postmortems. Question 7. What is the main objective of chaos engineering? A) To break systems for fun B) To improve system resilience by intentionally injecting faults
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Explanation: Chaos Mesh is a well-known Kubernetes-native chaos engineering platform. Question 9. What deployment strategy allows for releasing a new version to a small subset of users before rolling out to everyone? A) Rolling update B) Blue/green deployment C) Canary deployment D) Big bang deployment Answer: C Explanation: Canary deployments gradually expose new versions to minimize risk.
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Question 10. In CI/CD, what is the benefit of using automated security scanning in pipelines? A) Faster deployments B) Early detection of vulnerabilities C) More manual intervention D) Only for compliance Answer: B Explanation: Automated security scanning detects security issues early in the development lifecycle. Question 11. Which of the following best describes trunk-based development? A) Using multiple long-lived branches
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Answer: A Explanation: Docker is the standard tool for building and managing container images. Question 13. What is the primary purpose of an artifact repository in CI/CD? A) Store source code B) Store and version built artifacts C) Run integration tests D) Manage secrets Answer: B Explanation: Artifact repositories store and version built binaries or container images for deployment.
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Question 14. What is the principle of least privilege in IAM? A) Giving all users admin access B) Granting users only the permissions they need C) Allowing access to all resources D) Denying all access Answer: B Explanation: Least privilege ensures users have only the access necessary for their roles. Question 15. Which is NOT a best practice for IAM in cloud environments? A) Enabling MFA
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Answer: B Explanation: Firewalls filter and control network traffic to improve security. Question 17. Which method is recommended for managing secrets securely in the cloud? A) Storing secrets in source code B) Using a secrets management service C) Sending secrets via email D) Hard-coding secrets in applications Answer: B Explanation: Secrets management services securely store and manage access to sensitive data.
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Question 18. What is data encryption at rest? A) Encrypting data only when it's moving B) Encrypting data stored on disks C) Encrypting data in RAM D) No encryption Answer: B Explanation: Data at rest encryption protects stored data from unauthorized access. Question 19. Which tool is commonly used for Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in GCP? A) Terraform
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Answer: B Explanation: Configuration management tools automate setup and maintain consistency across environments. Question 21. What is disaster recovery in cloud infrastructure? A) Backing up only application code B) Preparing for and restoring service after failures or data loss C) Never planning for failures D) Disabling redundancy Answer: B Explanation: Disaster recovery plans ensure service continuity after unexpected disruptions.
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Question 22. Which of the following is NOT a part of a robust disaster recovery plan? A) Regular backups B) Testing recovery procedures C) Ignoring incident reports D) Defining RTO and RPO Answer: C Explanation: Ignoring incidents undermines recovery efforts; planning and testing are essential. Question 23. What is rightsizing in cloud cost management? A) Overprovisioning resources B) Adjusting resources to match actual usage
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Explanation: Committed use discounts offer lower prices when you commit to consistent usage. Question 25. What is a common cause of high application latency? A) Overprovisioning resources B) Network bottlenecks or inefficient code C) Underutilized resources D) Too many backups Answer: B Explanation: Latency can be caused by slow networks or unoptimized code. Question 26. What is the purpose of centralized logging?
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A) Distribute logs across all servers B) Aggregate logs in a single place for easier analysis C) Delete logs after 1 day D) Only log errors Answer: B Explanation: Centralized logging simplifies monitoring, troubleshooting, and compliance. Question 27. Which tool is used in GCP for centralized log aggregation and analysis? A) Cloud Logging (formerly Stackdriver Logging) B) Jenkins C) Terraform
