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Question 1. Which SDLC model emphasizes a sequential design process where each phase must be completed before the next begins? A) Spiral Model B) Waterfall Model C) Agile Methodology D) V-Model Answer: B Explanation: The Waterfall Model is a linear, sequential approach where phases like requirements, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance are completed one after the other without overlap, making it suitable for projects with well-understood requirements. Question 2. Which of the following is a key advantage of the Iterative and Incremental Model over the Waterfall Model? A) Fixed scope and timeline B) Early delivery of usable software C) Strict documentation requirements D) Less stakeholder involvement Answer: B Explanation: The Iterative and Incremental Model allows for early partial delivery of the system, enabling feedback and adjustments, which is not possible in the rigid Waterfall approach. Question 3. The Spiral Model primarily emphasizes: A) Risk management and iterative refinement B) Strict sequential phases C) Rapid prototyping only D) Minimal documentation Answer: A Explanation: The Spiral Model combines iterative development with risk assessment at each cycle, making it ideal for complex projects with significant uncertainties.
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Question 4. In the V-Model, the development phases are associated with corresponding testing phases. Which testing phase corresponds directly to the requirements specification? A) Acceptance Testing B) System Testing C) Validation Testing D) Unit Testing Answer: C Explanation: In the V-Model, validation testing (such as system or acceptance testing) is directly associated with earlier phases like requirements specification, ensuring the system meets user needs. Question 5. Which Agile methodology emphasizes visualizing workflow, limiting WIP, and managing flow through Kanban boards? A) Scrum B) Kanban C) Extreme Programming D) Lean Answer: B Explanation: Kanban focuses on visualizing work, limiting work in progress (WIP), and managing flow to improve efficiency and throughput. Question 6. Which DevOps principle aims at fostering a culture of collaboration between development and operations teams? A) Automation B) Culture C) Measurement D) Recovery Answer: B Explanation: Culture is a core DevOps principle emphasizing collaboration, shared responsibility, and transparency between development and operations teams.
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Question 10. Which type of requirement specifies measurable, non-functional attributes such as performance or security? A) Functional Requirement B) User Story C) Non-Functional Requirement D) Use Case Answer: C Explanation: Non-functional requirements specify quality attributes like performance, security, usability, and reliability, which are not directly related to specific functionalities. Question 11. Which document formally captures all system requirements, both functional and non- functional, in a detailed manner? A) Use Case Document B) Requirements Traceability Matrix C) Software Requirements Specification (SRS) D) Test Plan Answer: C Explanation: The SRS is a comprehensive document that clearly defines all system requirements, serving as a contract between stakeholders and developers. Question 12. The SOLID principle that promotes designing modules so that they can be extended without modifying existing code is called: A) Single Responsibility Principle B) Open/Closed Principle C) Liskov Substitution Principle D) Interface Segregation Principle Answer: B Explanation: The Open/Closed Principle states that software entities should be open for extension but closed for modification, facilitating maintainability and scalability.
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Question 13. Which design pattern belongs to the Creational category and ensures a class has only one instance? A) Factory B) Singleton C) Decorator D) Observer Answer: B Explanation: The Singleton pattern restricts instantiation of a class to a single object, providing a global point of access to that instance. Question 14. Which architectural pattern separates the user interface, business logic, and data storage into distinct layers? A) Monolithic Architecture B) Layered Architecture C) Microservices Architecture D) Event-Driven Architecture Answer: B Explanation: The Layered Architecture pattern divides the system into layers (e.g., presentation, business, data) with defined interactions, promoting separation of concerns. Question 15. In software construction, which principle advocates avoiding code duplication to improve maintainability? A) KISS B) DRY C) YAGNI D) SOLID Answer: B Explanation: The DRY (Don't Repeat Yourself) principle emphasizes reducing code duplication, thereby enhancing maintainability and reducing errors.
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Question 19. Which metric measures the percentage of code executed during testing, used to assess test coverage? A) Cyclomatic Complexity B) Statement Coverage C) Defect Density D) Response Time Answer: B Explanation: Statement Coverage indicates the proportion of code statements executed during testing, reflecting how thoroughly the code has been tested. Question 20. The process of identifying, analyzing, and controlling changes to software artifacts is called: A) Version Control B) Change Management C) Configuration Management D) Release Management Answer: B Explanation: Change Management involves systematically handling modifications to software, ensuring proper documentation, approval, and tracking. Question 21. Which type of maintenance involves modifying software to adapt to changes in the environment or requirements? A) Corrective B) Adaptive C) Perfective D) Preventive Answer: B Explanation: Adaptive maintenance modifies software to accommodate changes in the operating environment or requirements.
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Question 22. In software re-engineering, which activity involves analyzing legacy systems to understand their structure and functionality? A) Reverse Engineering B) Code Refactoring C) Software Migration D) Legacy Modernization Answer: A Explanation: Reverse Engineering involves analyzing existing systems to extract design and implementation information, facilitating understanding and future modifications. Question 23. Which SCM concept involves creating a snapshot of the project at a specific point in time? A) Branching B) Merging C) Baseline Management D) Tagging Answer: C Answer: D Explanation: Tagging creates a named snapshot or baseline of the codebase at a particular point, useful for releases or milestones. Question 24. Which project management activity involves estimating the effort, cost, and schedule for software development? A) Risk Management B) Project Planning and Estimation C) Stakeholder Analysis D) Quality Assurance Answer: B Explanation: Project Planning and Estimation involves forecasting resources, effort, and timelines necessary to complete the project successfully.
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Question 28. Which pattern in Event-Driven Architecture involves storing all state-changing events to reconstruct system state? A) Event Sourcing B) CQRS C) Message Queues D) Event Buses Answer: A Answer: A Explanation: Event Sourcing records all changes as a sequence of events, enabling system state reconstruction and auditability. Question 29. In Domain-Driven Design, which term describes an object that is identified solely by its attributes and not by identity? A) Entity B) Aggregate C) Value Object D) Domain Event Answer: C Explanation: Value Objects are immutable and defined by their attributes, unlike Entities which have distinct identities. Question 30. RESTful API design should adhere to which of the following principles? A) Use of HTTP methods to define actions B) Embedding operation logic in URLs C) Returning data in proprietary formats only D) Avoiding stateless interactions Answer: A Explanation: RESTful APIs utilize standard HTTP methods (GET, POST, PUT, DELETE) to perform operations on resources, following stateless communication principles.
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Question 31. Which security threat involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users? A) SQL Injection B) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) C) Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) D) Insecure Deserialization Answer: B Explanation: XSS involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages, which are then executed by other users' browsers, leading to potential data theft or session hijacking. Question 32. Which threat modeling methodology systematically categorizes threats based on their potential impact and exploitability? A) STRIDE B) DREAD C) OWASP Top 10 D) MITRE ATT&CK Answer: B Answer: B Explanation: DREAD assesses threats based on Damage potential, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, and Discoverability, aiding in risk prioritization. Question 33. Which phase of penetration testing involves actively exploiting vulnerabilities to determine their real-world impact? A) Reconnaissance B) Scanning C) Exploitation D) Reporting Answer: C Explanation: Exploitation is the phase where testers actively attempt to leverage vulnerabilities to assess their impact and exploitability.
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Question 37. Which type of software maintenance aims to improve system performance or maintainability without changing core functionalities? A) Corrective B) Adaptive C) Perfective D) Preventive Answer: C Explanation: Perfective maintenance involves enhancements and improvements that do not alter the fundamental behavior but improve aspects like performance or usability. Question 38. In version control, which command is used to combine multiple commits into a single, consolidated commit? A) merge B) rebase C) squash D) checkout Answer: C Explanation: 'Squash' is used during rebasing to combine multiple commits into a single one for cleaner history. Question 39. Which project management metric measures the functional size of software based on the number of function points? A) Lines of Code B) Function Points C) Cyclomatic Complexity D) Use Case Points Answer: B Explanation: Function Points quantify software size based on user functionalities, aiding effort estimation independent of technology.
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Question 40. Which SDLC model is best suited for projects where requirements are expected to change frequently and rapidly? A) Waterfall B) V-Model C) Agile D) Spiral Answer: C Explanation: Agile methodologies are designed to accommodate changing requirements through iterative cycles, promoting flexibility and responsiveness. Question 41. Which of the following principles advocates for designing software components to be highly cohesive and loosely coupled? A) SOLID Principles B) DRY Principle C) Separation of Concerns D) Modularity Answer: D Explanation: Modularity emphasizes dividing systems into independent, cohesive modules with minimal dependencies, enhancing maintainability. Question 42. Which design pattern provides a way to access the elements of a collection sequentially without exposing its underlying representation? A) Iterator (or Cursor) Pattern B) Singleton Pattern C) Factory Pattern D) Decorator Pattern Answer: A Explanation: The Iterator pattern abstracts traversal over a collection, allowing clients to access elements sequentially without exposing internal structure.
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Question 46. Which event pattern involves a producer emitting events that are stored and processed asynchronously by multiple consumers? A) Synchronous Request-Reply B) Event Sourcing C) Publish-Subscribe D) Client-Server Answer: C Explanation: Publish-Subscribe pattern decouples producers and consumers, allowing multiple consumers to process events independently. Question 47. In Domain-Driven Design, what is a 'Bounded Context'? A) A specific implementation of an entity B) A boundary within which a particular model applies C) A type of aggregate D) An external system interface Answer: B Explanation: A Bounded Context defines a boundary within which a particular domain model is valid and consistently understood, helping manage complexity. Question 48. REST API versioning strategies include all of the following EXCEPT: A) URI versioning B) Query parameter versioning C) Header versioning D) Embedding version in response body Answer: D Explanation: Embedding version info in the response body is not a standard or recommended approach; versioning is typically handled via URI, query parameters, or headers. Question 49. Which security vulnerability allows an attacker to trick a user into submitting a request that they did not intend to, often exploiting authentication sessions?
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A) SQL Injection B) Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) C) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) D) Insecure Deserialization Answer: B Explanation: CSRF tricks authenticated users into unknowingly submitting malicious requests, exploiting their active sessions. Question 50. Which cryptography concept involves converting plaintext into ciphertext using a key? A) Encryption B) Hashing C) Digital Signature D) Key Exchange Answer: A Explanation: Encryption transforms plaintext into ciphertext using an algorithm and key, ensuring confidentiality during transmission or storage. Question 51. Which performance metric measures the maximum number of transactions a system can process per second? A) Latency B) Throughput C) Response Time D) Scalability Answer: B Explanation: Throughput indicates the system's capacity to process transactions or data within a given time frame, often measured per second. Question 52. Which testing type evaluates the system's behavior under expected user load conditions? A) Stress Testing B) Load Testing
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Answer: A Explanation: Branching allows developers to work independently on features, bug fixes, or experiments without affecting the main codebase until ready. Question 56. In Agile, which artifact contains a prioritized list of features, enhancements, and bug fixes to be implemented? A) Sprint Backlog B) Product Backlog C) Release Plan D) Burn-down Chart Answer: B Explanation: The Product Backlog is a dynamic, prioritized list of all desired features and fixes, maintained by the Product Owner. Question 57. Which methodology involves frequent, short development cycles called 'sprints'? A) Waterfall B) Scrum C) Kanban D) Spiral Answer: B Explanation: Scrum is an Agile methodology that uses time-boxed iterations called sprints, typically lasting 2-4 weeks, to deliver incremental value. Question 58. Which practice in Agile promotes continuous feedback and adaptation through regular meetings? A) Sprint Planning B) Daily Scrum C) Sprint Review D) Retrospective Answer: B
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Explanation: The Daily Scrum is a short daily meeting where team members synchronize activities and plan for the next 24 hours, fostering transparency and adaptation. Question 59. Which of the following is a key benefit of applying Pair Programming? A) Increased code quality and knowledge sharing B) Reduced code review time C) Eliminates the need for testing D) Simplifies project management Answer: A Explanation: Pair Programming enhances code quality through real-time review and promotes knowledge sharing among team members. Question 60. Which project management practice involves identifying potential risks, analyzing their impact, and planning mitigation strategies? A) Risk Management B) Stakeholder Analysis C) Quality Assurance D) Effort Estimation Answer: A Explanation: Risk Management systematically identifies and evaluates risks, developing strategies to minimize their impact on project success. Question 61. Which SDLC model is characterized by iterative development with risk analysis at each cycle, often used for large, complex projects? A) Waterfall B) Spiral C) V-Model D) Agile Answer: B
