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Question 1. Which conflict resolution technique focuses on finding a win‑win solution that satisfies both parties’ underlying interests? A) Compromise B) Collaborate C) Accommodate D) Force Answer: B Explanation: Collaborating (problem‑solving) seeks to uncover each party’s concerns and develop a solution that fully satisfies both, resulting in a win‑win outcome. Question 2. In Tuckman’s model, which stage is characterized by high morale, cooperative effort, and strong performance? A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing Answer: D Explanation: The Performing stage follows Norming; the team works efficiently toward goals with minimal friction. Question 3. When a project manager uses the “directive” leadership style, which behavior is most likely? A) Delegating tasks without supervision B) Providing detailed instructions and close supervision C) Coaching team members to develop skills D) Allowing the team to self‑manage decisions Answer: B
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Explanation: Directive leadership involves giving clear directions, setting expectations, and closely monitoring performance. Question 4. Which of the following is a primary purpose of a project charter? A) Define the detailed work breakdown structure B) Authorize the project and provide high‑level objectives C) Capture lessons learned from previous projects D) Establish the project’s procurement plan Answer: B Explanation: The charter formally authorizes the project, defines its purpose, high‑level goals, and authority of the project manager. Question 5. A stakeholder with high power but low interest is best managed by: A) Keeping them satisfied with regular updates B) Engaging them closely in decision‑making C) Monitoring them with minimal communication D) Ignoring them because they are not interested Answer: C Explanation: High‑power/low‑interest stakeholders require monitoring; they need to be kept informed but not overly involved. Question 6. Which risk response strategy involves shifting the impact of a threat to a third party? A) Avoid B) Transfer C) Mitigate
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B) Common cause variation C) Special cause variation D) Insufficient sample size Answer: C Explanation: Points beyond control limits suggest a special cause that requires investigation. Question 10. Which procurement contract type places the most risk on the seller? A) Fixed‑price B) Cost‑reimbursable C) Time‑and‑materials D) Cost‑plus‑fixed‑fee Answer: A Explanation: Fixed‑price contracts guarantee a set price to the buyer; any cost overruns are borne by the seller. Question 11. In a hybrid project, the product backlog is primarily used to: A) Capture detailed schedule activities B) List all procurement contracts C) Prioritize and manage deliverable requirements D) Document risk response plans Answer: C Explanation: Agile components of hybrid projects maintain a product backlog to manage and prioritize work items. Question 12. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a Benefits Management Plan?
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A) Benefit identification B) Benefit measurement criteria C) Detailed activity schedule D) Benefit realization timeline Answer: C Explanation: A detailed activity schedule belongs to the schedule management plan, not the benefits plan. Question 13. When a project manager removes an impediment that is outside the team’s control, the appropriate action is to: A) Assign the issue to a team member for resolution B) Escalate the impediment to appropriate authority C) Document it and ignore it D) Decrease the project scope to avoid it Answer: B Explanation: Impediments beyond the team’s authority should be escalated to higher management or stakeholders who can act. Question 14. Which communication method is most appropriate for delivering a one‑time, high‑importance announcement to all stakeholders? A) Interactive (meeting) B) Push (email) C) Pull (intranet) D) Informal chat Answer: B Explanation: Push communication actively distributes information to recipients, suitable for urgent announcements.
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Explanation: Coaching focuses on developing team members, removing obstacles, and serving their needs—core to servant leadership. Question 18. When performing quantitative risk analysis, which technique uses probability distributions to model risk impact? A) SWOT analysis B) Monte Carlo simulation C) Expert judgment D) Risk urgency assessment Answer: B Explanation: Monte Carlo simulation runs many iterations using probability distributions to predict risk outcomes. Question 19. Which of the following best describes a “make‑or‑buy” analysis? A) Determining whether to outsource a work package or produce it internally B) Deciding on the project’s procurement schedule C) Selecting the appropriate contract type D) Assessing the skill level of team members Answer: A Explanation: Make‑or‑buy analysis evaluates the cost, risk, and benefits of internal production versus external procurement. Question 20. In Agile, a “Definition of Done” primarily serves to: A) List all project risks B) Define acceptance criteria for each user story C) Establish the project budget
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D) Detail the project’s communication plan Answer: B Explanation: The Definition of Done specifies when a product increment meets quality and functional criteria. Question 21. Which of the following is a leading indicator of potential scope creep? A) Increase in earned value B) Frequent change requests from stakeholders C) Decrease in schedule variance D) Higher cost performance index Answer: B Explanation: Numerous change requests suggest uncontrolled additions to scope, a hallmark of scope creep. Question 22. When using the Critical Path Method, which activity’s delay will directly increase the project’s finish date? A) Any activity on the critical path B) Any activity with float C) Any activity with the longest duration D) Any activity in the first phase Answer: A Explanation: Activities on the critical path have zero float; their delay extends the overall project duration. Question 23. A project manager is applying the “force” conflict resolution style. Which outcome is most likely? A) Both parties feel satisfied with the result
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Question 26. Which quality tool is most useful for identifying the root causes of a defect? A) Pareto chart B) Control chart C) Fishbone (Ishikawa) diagram D) Histogram Answer: C Explanation: The Fishbone diagram visually maps potential causes of a problem, aiding root‑cause analysis. Question 27. A project’s “burn rate” is best described as: A) The rate at which resources are allocated to tasks B) The rate of cost consumption over time C) The speed of delivering product increments D) The frequency of stakeholder meetings Answer: B Explanation: Burn rate measures how quickly the project’s budget is being spent, often expressed as cost per time period. Question 28. Which of the following contract types provides the greatest flexibility to accommodate scope changes? A) Fixed‑price B) Cost‑plus‑fixed‑fee C) Time‑and‑materials D) Lump‑sum Answer: C
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Explanation: Time‑and‑materials contracts allow adjustments in scope and effort, billing for actual work performed. Question 29. In a matrix organization, the most effective way to resolve a resource conflict is to: A) Reassign the resource without consultation B) Escalate the issue to the functional manager C) Negotiate a resource‑sharing agreement among project managers D] Ignore the conflict and continue as planned Answer: C Explanation: Collaborative negotiation among project managers aligns resource allocation with project priorities. Question 30. Which process is primarily responsible for tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, and identifying new risks? A) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B) Plan Risk Management C) Monitor and Control Risks D) Identify Risks Answer: C Explanation: The Monitor and Control Risks process continuously watches risk triggers and updates the risk register. Question 31. When a project manager uses the “accommodate” conflict style, the likely result is: A) The other party’s concerns are ignored B) Both parties achieve a win‑win outcome
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Question 34. Which of the following best describes “fast tracking” as a schedule compression technique? A) Adding more resources to critical path activities B) Performing activities in parallel that were originally sequential C) Reducing the scope of the project D) Extending the project calendar to include weekends Answer: B Explanation: Fast tracking overlaps phases/activities to shorten duration, increasing risk due to reduced sequencing. Question 35. A project manager wants to assess team members’ competency gaps. Which tool is most appropriate? A) RACI matrix B) Skills inventory matrix C) Earned value report D) Issue log Answer: B Explanation: A skills inventory maps existing competencies against required skills, highlighting gaps. Question 36. Which of the following is a primary purpose of a stakeholder register? A) Document the project’s cost baseline B) List all identified stakeholders and their attributes C) Capture the work breakdown structure D) Record change requests Answer: B
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Explanation: The stakeholder register records stakeholder names, roles, interests, influence, and communication needs. Question 37. When applying the “withdraw/avoid” conflict style, the manager: A) Engages parties in joint problem solving B) Temporarily postpones addressing the conflict C) Enforces a decision on the parties D) Gives in to the other party’s demands Answer: B Explanation: Avoidance involves stepping back, delaying, or ignoring the conflict, often when the issue is trivial. Question 38. Which of the following is NOT a typical activity in the “Close Project/Phase” process? A) Obtain final product acceptance B) Conduct performance reporting C) Archive project records D) Release project resources Answer: B Explanation: Performance reporting is a monitoring activity, not part of project closure. Question 39. A project manager is estimating activity durations using three‑point estimates. Which formula calculates the Expected Duration (PERT)? A) (Optimistic + Pessimistic) / 2 B) (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6 C) (Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 2
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B) Adjusting the project schedule to meet deadlines C) Preparing the organization to adopt the project’s deliverables D) Updating the risk register for new threats Answer: C Explanation: Organizational change management focuses on helping the enterprise embrace new processes, systems, or structures introduced by the project. Question 43. A project’s “risk tolerance” refers to: A) The probability of a risk occurring B) The organization’s capacity to absorb the impact of a risk C) The total number of risks identified D) The cost of risk mitigation activities Answer: B Explanation: Risk tolerance is the degree of variability in outcomes that an organization is willing to accept. Question 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “servant‑leader” project manager? A) Prioritizes personal achievement over team success B) Focuses on removing obstacles for the team C) Maintains strict hierarchical control D) Delegates all decision‑making to the team without guidance Answer: B Explanation: Servant leaders prioritize the needs of the team, removing impediments and facilitating performance.
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Question 45. In a cost‑reimbursable contract, the buyer: A) Pays a fixed price regardless of actual costs B) Pays for allowable costs plus a fee or profit C) Pays only for the hours worked D) Pays a lump sum at project completion Answer: B Explanation: Cost‑reimbursable contracts reimburse the seller for actual costs incurred plus a pre‑agreed fee. Question 46. Which of the following is an output of the “Identify Stakeholders” process? A) Stakeholder engagement plan B) Stakeholder register C) Communication management plan D) Change log Answer: B Explanation: The stakeholder register documents identified stakeholders and pertinent information about them. Question 47. When a project manager performs “resource leveling,” the primary goal is to: A) Reduce project duration B) Minimize resource overallocation C) Increase the number of resources on the critical path D) Accelerate the critical path activities Answer: B Explanation: Resource leveling adjusts activity dates to resolve resource over‑allocations while maintaining project constraints.
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Question 51. A project manager is developing a risk‑response plan for a high‑probability, low‑impact threat. The most appropriate strategy is: A) Transfer B) Accept C) Mitigate D) Exploit Answer: B Explanation: Accepting low‑impact threats avoids unnecessary expenditure; monitoring suffices. Question 52. Which document defines how quality will be managed and assured throughout the project? A) Quality management plan B) Scope baseline C) Risk register D) Procurement management plan Answer: A Explanation: The quality management plan outlines quality policies, standards, and procedures. Question 53. In the context of project governance, a “Change Control Board” (CCB) is responsible for: A) Approving the project charter B) Reviewing and approving change requests C) Conducting performance appraisals of team members D) Managing vendor contracts Answer: B
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Explanation: The CCB evaluates the impact of changes and authorizes or rejects them. Question 54. Which of the following best illustrates a “leading indicator” for project health? A) Earned Value (EV) at current date B) Number of open issues C) Percentage of completed milestones on schedule D) Final cost variance at project close Answer: C Explanation: Milestone completion trends provide early insight into schedule performance. Question 55. A project’s “critical chain” focuses on: A) The longest path of dependent activities B) Resource‑constrained schedule with buffers C) Activities with the highest cost D) The sequence of procurement activities Answer: B Explanation: Critical Chain Project Management adds buffers to protect the schedule from resource constraints. Question 56. In a matrix organization, a “dual‑reporting” relationship means a team member reports to: A) Only the functional manager B) Only the project manager C) Both functional and project managers D) The sponsor and the stakeholder
