PSAE Science Grade 11 Exam, Exams of Technology

Measured understanding of biology, chemistry, physics, and Earth/space science. Also tested scientific inquiry and reasoning skills through data analysis and graph interpretation.

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2024/2025

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PSAE Science Grade 11 Exam
Question 1. Which characteristic best distinguishes scientific knowledge
from other types of knowledge?
A) It is based on personal beliefs
B) It is empirical and testable
C) It is unverifiable
D) It remains unchanging over time
Answer: B
Explanation: Scientific knowledge is empirical and testable, meaning it
is based on observations and experiments that can be verified or
falsified through evidence.
Question 2. Which of the following is an example of a scientific
hypothesis?
A) The moon is made of cheese
B) Increasing sunlight causes plants to grow faster
C) All animals have four legs
D) The Earth is flat
Answer: B
Explanation: A hypothesis is a testable statement about the relationship
between variables; "Increasing sunlight causes plants to grow faster"
can be tested through experiments.
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Question 1. Which characteristic best distinguishes scientific knowledge from other types of knowledge? A) It is based on personal beliefs B) It is empirical and testable C) It is unverifiable D) It remains unchanging over time Answer: B Explanation: Scientific knowledge is empirical and testable, meaning it is based on observations and experiments that can be verified or falsified through evidence. Question 2. Which of the following is an example of a scientific hypothesis? A) The moon is made of cheese B) Increasing sunlight causes plants to grow faster C) All animals have four legs D) The Earth is flat Answer: B Explanation: A hypothesis is a testable statement about the relationship between variables; "Increasing sunlight causes plants to grow faster" can be tested through experiments.

Question 3. In an experiment testing the effect of fertilizer on plant growth, the fertilizer amount is the: A) Dependent variable B) Control variable C) Independent variable D) Confounding variable Answer: C Explanation: The independent variable is the one manipulated in an experiment; here, fertilizer amount is changed to observe effects on plant growth. Question 4. Which of the following best describes a control group? A) The group that receives the experimental treatment B) The group that is used for comparison and does not receive the treatment C) The group that is ignored in the analysis D) The group with the most variables Answer: B

D) Correlation always indicates causation Answer: B Explanation: Correlation shows a relationship between variables but does not necessarily mean one causes the other; causation implies a direct cause-and-effect link. Question 7. Which characteristic of scientific theories makes them tentative and subject to revision? A) They are absolute truths B) They are self-correcting and based on current evidence C) They are unchangeable once established D) They are purely speculative Answer: B Explanation: Scientific theories are tentative and can be revised as new evidence emerges, reflecting the self-correcting nature of science. Question 8. In designing an experiment, why is randomization important? A) To eliminate all variables B) To ensure bias is minimized and groups are comparable C) To guarantee a significant result

D) To make the experiment more complex Answer: B Explanation: Randomization reduces bias and helps ensure that experimental and control groups are comparable, increasing the validity of results. Question 9. Which graph type is most appropriate for displaying the relationship between two continuous variables? A) Pie chart B) Bar graph C) Scatter plot D) Histogram Answer: C Explanation: Scatter plots are used to visualize the relationship and correlation between two continuous variables. Question 10. Which measure of variability indicates the difference between the highest and lowest data points? A) Variance B) Standard deviation C) Range

C) Biology D) Astronomy Answer: C Explanation: Biology is a life science; physical sciences include chemistry, physics, and astronomy. Question 13. Newton's First Law states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion: A) Accelerates B) Changes direction C) Remains in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force D) Decelerates over time Answer: C Explanation: Newton's First Law (law of inertia) states that an object will maintain its state of motion unless acted upon by an external force. Question 14. The law of conservation of energy states that energy: A) Is created during chemical reactions B) Is destroyed in nuclear reactions C) Cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed

D) Is always conserved in chemical reactions but not physical processes Answer: C Explanation: The Law of Conservation of Energy asserts that energy remains constant in an isolated system, only changing form. Question 15. Which property of waves is related to the height of the wave? A) Wavelength B) Frequency C) Amplitude D) Speed Answer: C Explanation: Amplitude is the height of the wave and relates to the energy carried by the wave; larger amplitude means more energy. Question 16. The electromagnetic spectrum includes all the following EXCEPT: A) Radio waves B) X-rays C) Sound waves

D) V = R + I

Answer: A Explanation: Ohm's Law states that voltage equals current times resistance (V = IR). Question 19. Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between atoms? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Metallic bond D) Hydrogen bond Answer: B Explanation: Covalent bonds involve sharing electrons between atoms, typically between nonmetals. Question 20. In a chemical reaction, the Law of Conservation of Mass indicates that: A) Mass can be created or destroyed B) Total mass of reactants equals total mass of products C) Mass decreases during the reaction

D) Mass increases during the reaction Answer: B Explanation: The Law of Conservation of Mass states that in a chemical reaction, mass remains constant, with total mass of reactants equal to that of products. Question 21. The pH of a solution measures its: A) Acidity or alkalinity B) Salt concentration C) Temperature D) Electrical conductivity Answer: A Explanation: pH indicates the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, with values below 7 being acidic, above 7 alkaline, and 7 neutral. Question 22. An exothermic reaction is characterized by: A) Absorbing heat from surroundings B) Releasing heat to surroundings C) No heat transfer D) Requiring heat input to proceed

Answer: B Explanation: Mitochondria generate ATP through cellular respiration, providing energy for the cell. Question 25. The process by which DNA is copied into RNA is called: A) Translation B) Transcription C) Replication D) Mutation Answer: B Explanation: Transcription is the process of copying a DNA sequence into messenger RNA (mRNA). Question 26. In Mendelian genetics, a heterozygous individual with one dominant and one recessive allele for a trait is: A) Homozygous B) Heterozygous C) Purebred D) Recessive Answer: B

Explanation: Heterozygous individuals carry two different alleles for a trait, such as Aa. Question 27. Which pattern of inheritance involves both alleles being fully expressed in the phenotype? A) Incomplete dominance B) Codominance C) Recessive inheritance D) Sex-linked inheritance Answer: B Explanation: Codominance results in both alleles being expressed simultaneously, like AB blood type. Question 28. The theory of natural selection was proposed by: A) Gregor Mendel B) Charles Darwin C) Louis Pasteur D) Alfred Wegener Answer: B

Explanation: The Sun provides the energy necessary for photosynthesis, forming the basis of most food chains. Question 31. Which level of ecological organization includes all the living organisms in an area? A) Population B) Community C) Ecosystem D) Biosphere Answer: B Explanation: A community comprises all living organisms in a specific area, interacting with each other. Question 32. The process by which water vapor turns directly into ice crystals is called: A) Melting B) Condensation C) Sublimation D) Freezing Answer: C

Explanation: Sublimation is the transition of water vapor directly into ice without becoming liquid. Question 33. The Earth's core is primarily composed of: A) Silicon and oxygen B) Iron and nickel C) Magnesium and aluminum D) Carbon and sulfur Answer: B Explanation: The Earth's core is mainly made of iron and nickel, providing Earth's magnetic field. Question 34. The Earth's movement around the Sun causes: A) Day and night B) Seasons C) Tides D) Lunar phases Answer: B Explanation: The tilt of Earth's axis and its revolution around the Sun cause seasonal changes.

Question 37. The process of rock formation from cooled magma is called: A) Sedimentation B) Metamorphism C) Igneous rock formation D) Erosion Answer: C Explanation: When magma cools and solidifies, it forms igneous rocks. Question 38. The principle of superposition states that in undisturbed sedimentary rock layers, the oldest layers are: A) At the top B) At the bottom C) Randomly distributed D) In the middle Answer: B Explanation: In undisturbed strata, the oldest layers are at the bottom, with younger layers on top. Question 39. Which atmospheric layer contains the ozone layer?

A) Troposphere B) Stratosphere C) Mesosphere D) Thermosphere Answer: B Explanation: The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, protecting Earth from harmful UV radiation. Question 40. Which process describes the movement of water from the Earth's surface to the atmosphere? A) Transpiration B) Evaporation C) Condensation D) Precipitation Answer: B Explanation: Evaporation is the process where water turns into vapor and rises into the atmosphere. Question 41. Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"? A) Venus