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Pure Certified Flash Array Implementation Specialist
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
PLUS RATIONALES 2025/2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD
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1. Which of the following is a valid protocol supported by FlashArray for storage connectivity? A. iSCSI B. Fibre Channel C. NFS D. SMB Answer: A, B — FlashArray supports both iSCSI and Fibre Channel for block storage connectivity. 2. What is the minimum requirement for installing Purity on a new FlashArray? A. Valid serial number B. Latest Purity software version C. Network connectivity D. At least 1TB of free space Answer: A, C — A valid serial number and network connectivity are required for initial Purity installation. 3. During a FlashArray upgrade, which of the following must be completed first? A. Backup of volumes B. Reboot of all controllers C. Snapshot deletion D. Initiate upgrade from CLI Answer: A — A backup of all volumes is recommended before performing any software upgrade to prevent data loss.
4. Which FlashArray feature allows instantaneous space-efficient snapshots? A. Replication B. FlashRecover C. Protection Groups D. Snapshots Answer: D — Snapshots in FlashArray are instantaneous and space-efficient due to Purity’s copy-on-write architecture. 5. In a two-controller FlashArray, what happens if one controller fails? A. All volumes are lost B. The other controller takes over I/O C. The system shuts down D. Only read operations continue Answer: B — The surviving controller continues to handle all I/O without downtime. 6. Which of the following is required for ActiveCluster deployment? A. FlashArray running Purity 5.0 or later B. Inter-site IP connectivity C. Local snapshots D. Fibre Channel zoning Answer: A, B — ActiveCluster requires Purity 5.0+ and IP connectivity between sites for synchronous replication. 7. What is the maximum number of volumes that can be created on a single FlashArray? A. 1024 B. 2048 C. 8192 D. 16384 Answer: C — A FlashArray can support up to 8192 volumes. 8. When configuring a volume for deduplication and compression, what should be considered? A. Only compressible data benefits
Answer: A, B, C — IP configuration, DNS, and NTP settings are required for proper array operation.
13. What is the recommended practice before performing a firmware upgrade? A. Disable all snapshots B. Take a backup of the array C. Disconnect all hosts D. Upgrade both controllers simultaneously Answer: B — Always back up the array to ensure data is protected before upgrading. 14. Which of the following Purity features provides predictive analytics for capacity and performance? A. ActiveCluster B. Pure1 Meta C. FlashRecover D. SnapRestore Answer: B — Pure1 Meta leverages AI-driven analytics for predictive insights. 15. What is the default behavior when a volume is created without enabling encryption? A. Volume is encrypted using Purity default key B. Volume is stored in plaintext C. Array refuses to create the volume D. Encryption can only be enabled later Answer: B — By default, volumes are not encrypted unless encryption is explicitly enabled. 16. Which action is necessary to connect a host to a FlashArray via Fibre Channel? A. Create a volume B. Configure a host in the array C. Zone the host and array in the FC switch D. Enable iSCSI protocol
Answer: A, B, C — The host must be configured in the array, a volume created, and proper FC zoning done.
17. Which statement is true about Purity ActiveCluster RPO? A. RPO is always zero for synchronous replication B. RPO is always 5 minutes C. RPO is configurable per volume D. RPO is not applicable for ActiveCluster Answer: A — Synchronous replication in ActiveCluster ensures zero RPO. 18. What is the maximum supported number of hosts connected to a FlashArray? A. 128 B. 256 C. 512 D. 1024 Answer: C — A FlashArray can support up to 512 connected hosts. 19. What is the purpose of FlashRecover? A. Real-time replication B. Long-term backup and retention C. Volume deduplication D. Data encryption Answer: B — FlashRecover provides long-term backup and retention for disaster recovery. 20. Which step is recommended after adding new capacity to a FlashArray? A. Rebalance RAID groups B. Reboot the array C. Perform volume expansion D. Update firmware Answer: A, C — Rebalancing and expanding volumes ensure optimal use of added capacity.
D. Thin Provisioning Answer: B — Protection Groups allow policy-driven snapshot and replication management.
26. What is required to perform a non-disruptive software upgrade on a FlashArray? A. Redundant controllers B. All hosts disconnected C. Backup taken D. Volume snapshots disabled Answer: A, C — Non-disruptive upgrades rely on controller redundancy and prior backup. 27. Which of the following best describes thin provisioning in FlashArray? A. Pre-allocates all storage to volume B. Allocates storage as data is written C. Requires manual expansion D. Only available for NFS volumes Answer: B — Thin provisioning allocates capacity on-demand as data is written. 28. Which type of replication allows zero data loss between arrays? A. Asynchronous B. Synchronous C. Snap-to-snap D. Manual copy Answer: B — Synchronous replication ensures zero RPO and zero data loss. 29. Which of the following is a key benefit of deduplication? A. Improves write performance B. Reduces physical storage usage C. Enables ActiveCluster D. Provides snapshot capabilities Answer: B — Deduplication reduces storage usage by eliminating duplicate data blocks.
30. What is the default alert notification method for a FlashArray? A. Email B. SNMP C. Syslog D. CLI pop-ups Answer: A — By default, FlashArray can send alerts via email notifications. 31. Which command is used to upgrade Purity via CLI? A. pureupdate start B. pureupdate download C. pureupdate run D. pureupdate status Answer: A — pureupdate start initiates the software upgrade process. 32. Which network topology is recommended for FlashArray management ports? A. Single switch B. Dual-switch redundant paths C. Daisy chain D. Hub-based topology Answer: B — Dual-switch configuration provides redundancy and reliability. 33. What is the maximum number of snapshots per volume in FlashArray? A. 128 B. 256 C. 1024 D. 8192 Answer: C — Each volume can have up to 1024 snapshots. 34. Which of the following features protects data against controller failure? A. RAID-DP B. ActiveCluster C. FlashRecover D. SnapRestore Answer: A — RAID-DP ensures data integrity even if one or two drives fail.
40. What is a recommended step after creating a new volume? A. Map it to a host B. Enable compression C. Take an initial snapshot D. Perform RAID rebalance Answer: A, C — Map the volume to a host and take an initial snapshot to ensure recoverability. 41. Which Purity command shows the array’s current capacity usage? A. purevol list B. purearray list C. purearray show D. purevol usage Answer: C — purearray show provides detailed capacity usage and health information. 42. What is the maximum number of protection groups supported per array? A. 128 B. 256 C. 512 D. 1024 Answer: B — Up to 256 protection groups can be created per FlashArray. 43. Which action is required before performing ActiveCluster failover? A. Backup snapshots B. Ensure replication is healthy C. Disconnect all hosts D. Disable deduplication Answer: B — ActiveCluster failover requires replication to be fully healthy to avoid data loss. 44. How does Purity handle thin-provisioned volumes when they run out of physical capacity?
A. Automatically expand the volume B. Generate alerts and pause writes C. Overwrite old data D. Fail the array Answer: B — Purity generates alerts and pauses writes until capacity is added.
45. Which command shows array firmware version? A. pureversion show B. purearray list C. pureversion list D. purearray show Answer: D — purearray show displays array firmware version, Purity version, and other health metrics. 46. What is the primary benefit of SnapRestore? A. Reduces storage consumption B. Restores a volume instantly from a snapshot C. Replicates data to another array D. Encrypts data at rest Answer: B — SnapRestore allows fast restoration to a previous snapshot state. 47. When adding new drives to a FlashArray, what happens automatically? A. RAID groups are rebuilt B. Data is migrated to new drives C. Capacity is immediately available for volumes D. Performance is halved Answer: A — FlashArray automatically incorporates new drives into RAID-DP groups. 48. Which protocol is required for ActiveCluster synchronous replication? A. Fibre Channel B. iSCSI C. IP (TCP/IP) D. NFS Answer: C — ActiveCluster uses IP-based synchronous replication between sites.
D. SnapRestore Answer: C — RAID-DP provides double parity protection against dual-drive failures.
54. Which command lists host assignments to volumes? A. purevol list B. purehost list C. purevol show --host D. purehost show Answer: B — purehost list displays hosts and assigned volumes. 55. What is a recommended step after creating a protection group? A. Immediately replicate it to another array B. Assign volumes to it C. Enable deduplication D. Reboot array Answer: B — Volumes must be assigned to protection groups to be included in policies. 56. Which type of replication allows asynchronous transfers for long-distance sites? A. ActiveCluster B. Async replication C. SnapRestore D. Thin replication Answer: B — Asynchronous replication is suited for long-distance disaster recovery. 57. Which command is used to add a host to a FlashArray? A. purehost add <host_name> B. purevol create <volume_name> C. purearray register D. purehost register Answer: A — purehost add registers a host for volume access.
58. What is required to enable encryption on FlashArray? A. Volume recreation with encryption enabled B. Host mapping C. ActiveCluster replication D. SnapRestore Answer: A — Encryption must be enabled when the volume is created. 59. Which Purity command shows detailed volume statistics including IOPS and latency? A. purevol stats B. purevol show C. purearray stats D. purehost stats Answer: A — purevol stats provides performance statistics per volume. 60. Which of the following is recommended before performing a non-disruptive upgrade? A. Ensure protection groups are paused B. Backup all volumes C. Disconnect hosts D. Disable replication Answer: B — Backing up volumes ensures data protection before upgrades. 61. Which protocol is used by FlashArray for NFS connectivity? A. TCP/IP B. SMB C. iSCSI D. Fibre Channel Answer: A — NFS uses standard TCP/IP networking for connectivity. 62. When a snapshot is deleted, what happens to the data it references? A. All data is erased B. Data is retained if referenced by other snapshots or volumes
67. How does Purity handle automatic RAID rebuilds? A. User must manually initiate rebuild B. Rebuild is automatic when a new drive is added C. Array stops I/O during rebuild D. Rebuild requires a snapshot Answer: B — FlashArray automatically rebuilds RAID-DP when drives are replaced or added. 68. Which command shows replication status for all volumes? A. purevol show --replication B. purehost list C. purevol stats D. purearray show Answer: A — Displays replication state for each volume. 69. Which FlashArray feature supports long-term retention for compliance purposes? A. SnapRestore B. FlashRecover C. ActiveCluster D. Protection Groups Answer: B — FlashRecover enables long-term data retention. 70. What is the maximum number of arrays that can participate in ActiveCluster? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. Unlimited Answer: A — ActiveCluster is designed for a two-array synchronous replication setup. 71. Which of the following is true about thin-provisioned volumes? A. They always consume allocated storage B. Physical storage is consumed as data is written
C. They require manual expansion D. Deduplication must be disabled Answer: B — Thin-provisioned volumes allocate physical storage on demand.
72. How does Purity ensure zero RPO during synchronous replication? A. Data is asynchronously queued B. Writes are acknowledged only after replication C. Snapshots are taken on both arrays D. Only metadata is replicated Answer: B — Writes are acknowledged to the host only after being safely replicated. 73. Which of the following is true about RAID-DP? A. Provides single-parity protection B. Provides double-parity protection C. Cannot handle two simultaneous drive failures D. Only used for metadata Answer: B — RAID-DP protects against dual-drive failures. 74. Which CLI command shows active volume connections for a host? A. purehost list B. purevol show --host C. purearray show D. purevol stats Answer: B — Displays host-to-volume mapping and connection status. 75. Which Purity feature allows AI-driven recommendations for performance and capacity? A. SnapRestore B. Pure1 Meta C. ActiveCluster D. FlashRecover Answer: B — Pure1 Meta uses AI analytics for array optimization.
Answer: A — Pure1 provides remote monitoring, predictive analytics, and support access.
81. What is the recommended method to expand a volume after adding capacity? A. Use the CLI purevol expand command B. Delete and recreate the volume C. Enable thin provisioning D. Reboot the array Answer: A — purevol expand increases volume size without disruption. 82. Which of the following is true about FlashRecover? A. Only stores short-term snapshots B. Provides long-term retention for compliance C. Requires encryption D. Only works with iSCSI Answer: B — FlashRecover is for long-term retention. 83. What is the recommended network configuration for management ports? A. Redundant dual-switch paths B. Single unmanaged switch C. Daisy-chain D. Hub-based topology Answer: A — Dual-switch redundancy improves reliability. 84. Which type of snapshot is writable? A. Copy-on-write snapshot B. Writable snapshot C. FlashRecover snapshot D. Protection Group snapshot Answer: B — Writable snapshots allow modifications independent of the source.
85. Which Purity CLI command shows performance metrics per volume? A. purevol stats B. purearray show C. purehost list D. purevol show Answer: A — Provides IOPS, latency, and throughput metrics. 86. What is the default behavior when creating a volume without enabling encryption? A. Stored in plaintext B. Automatically encrypted C. Fails creation D. Volume is read-only Answer: A — Volumes are plaintext unless encryption is enabled at creation. 87. Which Purity feature allows policy-based snapshot and replication management? A. Protection Groups B. SnapRestore C. ActiveCluster D. FlashRecover Answer: A — Protection Groups manage snapshots and replication via policies. 88. How many hosts can be connected to a FlashArray? A. 128 B. 256 C. 512 D. 1024 Answer: C — Up to 512 hosts are supported. 89. Which action is required after creating a protection group? A. Assign volumes to the group B. Reboot array C. Enable encryption D. Create snapshots manually
