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Practice Exam
Question 1. Which component of a Pure FlashArray is responsible for executing the Purity operating environment? A) DirectFlash Modules B) Controllers C) Front‑end ports D) Shelf manager Answer: B Explanation: The controllers host the Purity OS, handling all I/O processing, data reduction, and management functions. Question 2. In Pure’s Active/Active architecture, what happens when one controller fails? A) All I/O stops until the controller is replaced. B) The surviving controller automatically takes over all workloads without interruption. C) The array switches to a degraded mode with reduced performance. D) Data becomes read‑only until the failed controller is restored. Answer: B Explanation: Active/Active provides full redundancy; the remaining controller continues serving I/O, ensuring zero‑downtime.
Practice Exam
Question 3. Which data reduction technology is applied inline and always on in FlashArray? A) RAID‑5 parity B) Snapshot cloning C) Deduplication and compression D) Tiered caching Answer: C Explanation: Pure’s Purity runs deduplication and compression inline on every write, reducing storage consumption continuously. Question 4. The Data Reduction Ratio (DRR) is best described as: A) Ratio of raw capacity to usable capacity after reduction. B) Ratio of compressed to uncompressed data size. C) Ratio of deduplication hits to total writes. D) Ratio of snapshot size to original volume size. Answer: A Explanation: DRR = (raw capacity) ÷ (usable capacity) and indicates how much storage is saved by reduction. Question 5. Thin provisioning on FlashArray allows: A) Pre‑allocation of the full volume size on the array.
Practice Exam
D) Queue depth Answer: C Explanation: IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) quantifies operation count per second. Question 8. Evergreen//Forever subscription primarily provides: A) Unlimited hardware upgrades for life of the contract. B) Pay‑per‑use consumption model. C) On‑demand capacity scaling only. D) Software licensing without hardware. Answer: A Explanation: Evergreen//Forever guarantees non‑disruptive hardware upgrades throughout the subscription term. Question 9. During a Non‑Disruptive Upgrade (NDU), which component is upgraded first to maintain availability? A) Front‑end ports B) Host initiators C) Secondary controller D) Management IP address Answer: C
Practice Exam
Explanation: The secondary controller is upgraded while the primary remains active; then roles are swapped. Question 10. Which CLI command creates a new volume on a FlashArray? A) purevol create B) purevol new C) purevol add D) purevol createvol Answer: A Explanation: The purevol create command is used to provision a new volume. Question 11. When configuring a FlashArray for iSCSI, which network setting must be defined? A) WWN B) Data VIP C) FC target port D) NVMe target ID Answer: B Explanation: The Data Virtual IP (VIP) is the iSCSI target address for host connectivity.
Practice Exam
B) NVMe‑FC C) FC‑FCP D) iSCSI Answer: C Explanation: Fibre Channel uses the FC‑FCP (Fibre Channel Protocol) for block transport. Question 15. Quality of Service (QoS) on FlashArray can be configured to: A) Limit the maximum IOPS a volume can consume. B) Encrypt data on a per‑volume basis. C) Automatically deduplicate data. D) Replicate data to the cloud. Answer: A Explanation: QoS policies set IOPS or bandwidth caps to isolate workloads. Question 16. Which feature enables a FlashArray to present both block and file services from the same hardware? A) Pure1 Meta B) FA File Services C) ActiveCluster D) CloudSnap
Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: FA File Services adds SMB/NFS file sharing capabilities on top of block storage. Question 17. A snapshot that captures the state of a volume at a specific point without shutting down the application is called: A) Crash‑consistent snapshot B) Application‑consistent snapshot C) Incremental snapshot D) Full clone Answer: B Explanation: Application‑consistent snapshots coordinate with the host to flush caches, ensuring data integrity. Question 18. In Pure’s asynchronous replication, the RPO (Recovery Point Objective) defines: A) Maximum allowable downtime. B) Maximum data loss measured in time. C) Number of replicas stored. D) Bandwidth allocated for replication. Answer: B
Practice Exam
Question 21. Data at Rest Encryption (D@RE) on FlashArray is implemented using: A) AES‑256 encryption with per‑array keys. B) Self‑encrypting drives only. C) TLS for all network traffic. D) MD5 hashing of data blocks. Answer: A Explanation: Pure uses AES‑256 to encrypt data on the SSDs, with keys managed by the array. Question 22. Which Purity feature continuously verifies data integrity and repairs corrupted blocks? A) SnapMirror B) Self‑healing checksums C) Data reduction engine D) QoS throttling Answer: B Explanation: Purity writes checksums with each block and automatically repairs errors using redundant data. Question 23. Pure1 Meta’s primary purpose is to:
Practice Exam
A) Provide real‑time alerting for hardware failures. B) Offer predictive analytics for capacity and performance planning. C) Manage user authentication. D. Deploy firmware updates. Answer: B Explanation: Pure1 Meta uses machine learning to forecast workload trends and capacity needs. Question 24. When viewing performance in the Pure1 dashboard, the “Latency” metric is expressed in: A) MB/s B) IOPS C) Milliseconds (ms) D) Percent utilization Answer: C Explanation: Latency measures the time a request spends waiting, reported in milliseconds. Question 25. A common cause of high latency on a FlashArray is: A. Insufficient SSD endurance. B. Oversubscribed QoS limits on a volume.
Practice Exam
Explanation: The purerep status command displays the health and progress of asynchronous replication. Question 28. CloudSnap enables FlashArray snapshots to be offloaded to: A. Local tape libraries. B. Object storage services such as AWS S3 or Azure Blob. C. A secondary on‑prem FlashArray only. D. Physical SSDs in a different chassis. Answer: B Explanation: CloudSnap copies snapshots to cloud object stores for long‑term retention and DR. Question 29. When using Pure’s Cloud Block Store (CBS) in AWS, the primary communication protocol between the on‑prem FlashArray and CBS is: A. iSCSI over VPN. B. NVMe‑oF over AWS Direct Connect. C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE). D. S3 REST API. Answer: B Explanation: CBS leverages NVMe‑oF over a dedicated network link (e.g., Direct Connect) for low‑latency block transport.
Practice Exam
Question 30. Which VMware feature integrates directly with FlashArray to offload cloning and snapshots? A. vMotion B. VAAI (vStorage APIs for Array Integration) C. DRS D. NSX‑T Answer: B Explanation: VAAI enables array‑based cloning, zero‑copy snapshots, and thin provisioning, reducing host load. Question 31. In a Pure environment, what is the purpose of a “Volume Group”? A. To aggregate multiple volumes for a single logical namespace. B. To apply a common QoS policy across several volumes. C. To replicate volumes as a single unit. D. To create a snapshot schedule for all member volumes. Answer: B Explanation: Volume Groups allow administrators to set QoS limits that affect all contained volumes. Question 32. Which of the following best describes “X‑form” upgrades in the Evergreen model?
Practice Exam
C. FTP
D. CIFS
Answer: C Explanation: Pure File Services supports SMB (CIFS) and NFS; FTP is not a native protocol. Question 35. In Pure, “Immutable Snapshots” are created by: A. Enabling encryption on the snapshot. B. Setting the SafeMode flag, which writes snapshots to a write‑once media. C. Replicating snapshots to a secondary array. D. Using a separate SSD tier for snapshot storage. Answer: B Explanation: SafeMode creates immutable snapshots that cannot be altered, protecting against ransomware. Question 36. Which metric would you monitor to detect a potential bottleneck in network bandwidth on a FlashArray? A. IOPS per volume B. Average latency (ms) C. Data‑VIP throughput (GB/s) D. Number of snapshots retained
Practice Exam
Answer: C Explanation: Monitoring throughput on the Data‑VIP reveals whether the network link is saturated. Question 37. What is the default replication mode for Pure ActiveDR? A. Synchronous B. Asynchronous with near‑zero RPO C. Periodic batch replication every 24 hours D. One‑way replication only Answer: B Explanation: ActiveDR provides continuous asynchronous replication with very low RPO (seconds). Question 38. When configuring a host for NVMe‑oF connectivity, which of the following must be defined on the array? A. FC WWNs B. NVMe target ports and NQN (NVMe Qualified Name) C. iSCSI IQNs D. SMB share names Answer: B Explanation: NVMe‑oF uses target ports and NQNs to identify the remote subsystem.
Practice Exam
A. purevol show --qos <vol> B. pureqos get <vol> C. purevol qos --list <vol> D. purearray qos show <vol> Answer: A Explanation: The purevol show --qos flag returns QoS details for the indicated volume. Question 42. What is the primary advantage of using Pure’s “ActiveCluster” over asynchronous replication for a metro‑distance deployment? A. Lower storage costs. B. Zero RPO and automatic failover/failback. C. Ability to replicate to multiple cloud providers. D. Simpler configuration steps. Answer: B Explanation: ActiveCluster replicates synchronously, guaranteeing zero data loss and providing seamless failover. Question 43. Which feature allows a FlashArray to automatically balance workloads across its two controllers? A. Dynamic Resource Allocation (DRA) B. Host‑initiated I/O steering
Practice Exam
C. Load‑balancing VLANs D. RAID‑0 striping Answer: A Explanation: DRA monitors load and distributes I/O between controllers to maintain consistent latency. Question 44. When a snapshot is taken, which of the following statements is true? A. The entire volume data is copied immediately. B. Only metadata pointers are created; data blocks are shared until changed. C. The snapshot consumes the same amount of space as the original volume. D. Snapshots cannot be taken on compressed volumes. Answer: B Explanation: Snapshots are space‑efficient; they use copy‑on‑write, sharing unchanged blocks with the source. Question 45. Which of the following is a recommended practice for protecting against ransomware on a FlashArray? A. Disable all snapshots. B. Enable SafeMode immutable snapshots and retain them for a minimum of 30 days. C. Increase QoS limits to maximum values.
