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Practice Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best describes “software quality” according to ISO 25010? A) Fit for use by end user B) Conformance to requirements and multiple quality characteristics C) How fast the code executes D) Number of users supported Answer: B Explanation: ISO 25010 defines software quality using multiple characteristics, including conformance to requirements, maintainability, security, and more, not just fitness for use. Question 2. What is the primary economic impact of technical debt in a software project? A) Increased documentation B) Higher long-term maintenance costs C) Faster initial development D) Improved user satisfaction Answer: B Explanation: Technical debt leads to higher future maintenance costs due to the need for rework and fixes. Question 3. Which of the following is a cost of failure in software quality? A) Appraisal cost B) Prevention cost C) Internal failure cost D) Training cost Answer: C
Practice Exam
Explanation: Internal failure costs occur when defects are found before the product reaches the customer. Question 4. What does “cost of conformance” in software quality refer to? A) Cost of fixing bugs after release B) Cost of preventing and detecting defects C) Cost of customer support D) Cost of marketing Answer: B Explanation: Cost of conformance includes costs invested in prevention and appraisal to achieve quality. Question 5. Which quality attribute focuses on how easily a software system can be changed? A) Usability B) Performance efficiency C) Maintainability D) Security Answer: C Explanation: Maintainability measures the ease of modifying a system for corrections, improvements, or adaptation. Question 6. What is “corrective maintenance” in software development? A) Adding a new feature B) Fixing identified bugs C) Improving performance D) Updating documentation only
Practice Exam
D) Optimizing database queries only Answer: B Explanation: Preventive maintenance includes activities like refactoring to prevent future issues. Question 10. Which metric best quantifies the number of independent paths through a program? A) Coupling metric B) Cyclomatic complexity C) Test coverage D) Lines of code Answer: B Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the number of independent execution paths, indicating code complexity. Question 11. What does “test coverage” measure? A) Number of bugs found by users B) Percent of code executed by tests C) Size of the codebase D) Frequency of deployments Answer: B Explanation: Test coverage is the percentage of code executed by automated tests, indicating test thoroughness. Question 12. Which of the following is NOT a maintainability sub-characteristic in the SIG model? A) Testability B) Understandability
Practice Exam
C) Changeability D) Scalability Answer: D Explanation: Scalability is not a sub-characteristic of maintainability in the SIG model. Question 13. The “structure” sub-characteristic of maintainability primarily concerns: A) Test automation B) Software architecture and design C) Network latency D) User interface color schemes Answer: B Explanation: The structure sub-characteristic focuses on architecture and design for maintainability. Question 14. What is a “code smell”? A) A syntax error B) A symptom of deeper design problems C) A feature request D) A performance optimization Answer: B Explanation: Code smells are signs of potential deeper issues in the code, not direct bugs. Question 15. Which pillar of maintainability is most impacted by “complex conditional logic”? A) Simplicity and readability B) Documentation
Practice Exam
C) Middle man D) Temporary field Answer: B Explanation: Methods with too many parameters are hard to use and maintain. Question 19. An example of an Object-Orientation Abuser code smell is: A) Large class B) Switch statements for behavior C) Duplicate code D) Inconsistent indentation Answer: B Explanation: Switch statements in object-oriented programs often indicate improper use of polymorphism. Question 20. What is the danger of a “temporary field” smell? A) Consumes excess memory B) Indicates fields are only needed occasionally, cluttering the class C) Increases performance D) Improves maintainability Answer: B Explanation: Temporary fields clutter classes and indicate poor design. Question 21. Inheritance is abused when a subclass: A) Uses all parent methods
Practice Exam
B) Refuses to use inherited features (Refused Bequest) C) Adds new fields D) Documents its methods well Answer: B Explanation: Refused bequest occurs when a subclass does not use inherited members, indicating a poor hierarchy. Question 22. “Divergent Change” is a code smell where: A) One change requires modifications in many unrelated places B) Several unrelated methods change for one data modification C) A single class handles many responsibilities D) Classes are loosely coupled Answer: B Explanation: Divergent change means one change triggers updates in unrelated methods within the same class. Question 23. “Shotgun Surgery” refers to code where: A) Many small changes are needed across many classes for a single modification B) All logic is in one method C) There is no documentation D) Classes are too big Answer: A Explanation: Shotgun surgery is when a single change requires small edits in many classes. Question 24. Parallel inheritance hierarchies force you to:
Practice Exam
Question 27. The “Middle Man” code smell indicates: A) A class that delegates all its work to others B) A class with too many methods C) A method with too many parameters D) Duplicate code Answer: A Explanation: Middle man refers to classes that only pass messages to other classes, adding no value. Question 28. Which metric is used to measure how much code has been duplicated? A) Cyclomatic complexity B) Duplication percentage C) Test coverage D) Coupling Answer: B Explanation: Duplication percentage quantifies the amount of copy-pasted code in a project. Question 29. Which tool is commonly used for static analysis of code smells? A) SQL Server B) SonarQube C) Google Chrome D) Notepad Answer: B Explanation: SonarQube is widely used for static analysis and code quality checks.
Practice Exam
Question 30. What is the main benefit of using linters? A) Detecting performance bottlenecks B) Automatically checking code for style and quality issues C) Managing user accounts D) Building project documentation Answer: B Explanation: Linters automatically check code for style, quality, and some potential errors. Question 31. Refactoring is best described as: A) Changing external behavior of a system B) Changing internal structure without altering external behavior C) Adding new features D) Writing new tests Answer: B Explanation: Refactoring changes code structure while preserving its functionality. Question 32. When is it generally best to refactor code? A) After a critical bug is found in production B) Before adding a new feature or fixing a bug C) After every commit D) Only during code reviews Answer: B Explanation: Refactoring before feature addition or bug fixing prevents compounding issues.
Practice Exam
Question 36. Replacing conditional logic with polymorphism is especially useful for: A) Improving performance B) Eliminating complex switch statements C) Increasing code duplication D) Decreasing test coverage Answer: B Explanation: Polymorphism replaces conditionals, making code cleaner and easier to extend. Question 37. Which refactoring is used when a class is doing too much? A) Move Method B) Extract Class C) Inline Temp D) Replace Temp with Query Answer: B Explanation: Extract Class separates concerns by splitting responsibilities into multiple classes. Question 38. If a method is used by another class more than its own, the recommended refactoring is: A) Move Method B) Substitute Algorithm C) Introduce Assertion D) Rename Method Answer: A Explanation: Moving the method to the class it interacts with most improves cohesion.
Practice Exam
Question 39. Which refactoring pattern helps reduce “Primitive Obsession”? A) Replace Data Value with Object B) Extract Method C) Move Field D) Remove Middle Man Answer: A Explanation: Replace Data Value with Object encourages richer data types over primitives. Question 40. Which refactoring is recommended for long parameter lists? A) Introduce Parameter Object B) Replace Inline Code with Method Call C) Collapse Hierarchy D) Rename Variable Answer: A Explanation: Introducing a parameter object groups parameters into a single object, simplifying method signatures. Question 41. What is the main advantage of reducing cyclomatic complexity? A) Lower compilation time B) Easier to understand, test, and maintain code C) Increased security D) Larger codebase Answer: B Explanation: Lower cyclomatic complexity improves readability, maintainability, and testability.
Practice Exam
Question 45. What is the impact of poor maintainability on developer morale? A) Increases job satisfaction B) Makes development faster C) Causes frustration and reduces motivation D) Improves code quality Answer: C Explanation: Poor maintainability leads to developer frustration and lower morale. Question 46. Which type of software quality cost includes training and process improvement? A) Internal failure cost B) Prevention cost C) External failure cost D) Appraisal cost Answer: B Explanation: Prevention costs include investments in training and quality processes. Question 47. What is an “external failure” cost? A) Cost incurred before release B) Cost of defects found by customers after release C) Cost of code reviews D) Cost of test automation Answer: B Explanation: External failure costs arise when defects escape to customers.
Practice Exam
Question 48. The key difference between reliability and maintainability is: A) Reliability refers to system availability; maintainability refers to ease of modification B) Both mean the same C) Maintainability is about runtime performance D) Reliability is about code readability Answer: A Explanation: Reliability is about uptime; maintainability is about making changes. Question 49. Which of the following is a key characteristic of high maintainability? A) High duplication B) Low complexity C) High coupling D) Lack of documentation Answer: B Explanation: Lower complexity means easier maintenance. Question 50. What is the benefit of high test coverage? A) Decreases code size B) Increases confidence in code changes C) Reduces documentation effort D) Increases runtime performance Answer: B Explanation: High test coverage ensures changes do not break existing functionality.
Practice Exam
Question 54. What is the main risk of not addressing code smells? A) More frequent code reviews B) Accumulation of technical debt C) Increased documentation D) Improved code reuse Answer: B Explanation: Ignoring code smells leads to technical debt accumulation. Question 55. Which of the following is NOT a category of code smells? A) Couplers B) Bloaters C) Refactorers D) Change Preventers Answer: C Explanation: Refactorers are not a code smell category; the others are. Question 56. What does “large class” smell indicate? A) Class with many unrelated responsibilities B) Class with no methods C) Small, focused class D) High test coverage Answer: A Explanation: Large classes handle too much, violating the single responsibility principle.
Practice Exam
Question 57. A “Switch Statement” smell is often resolved by: A) Adding more conditions B) Using polymorphism C) Increasing code duplication D) Removing documentation Answer: B Explanation: Polymorphism replaces switch statements for extensibility. Question 58. Why is “shotgun surgery” considered harmful? A) It improves team communication B) It makes changes error-prone and time-consuming C) It reduces code duplication D) It increases test coverage Answer: B Explanation: Shotgun surgery spreads change across many locations, increasing risk. Question 59. How do static analysis tools help with maintainability? A) Only check for syntax errors B) Identify code smells and potential quality issues C) Compile code automatically D) Increase code speed Answer: B Explanation: Static analysis tools detect maintainability problems early.
