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A series of questions and answers related to radiologic technology and ARRT review. It covers topics such as attenuation, photon-tissue interaction, SI units, linear energy transfer, and radiation exposure. It also includes scenarios related to patient consent and waste disposal. The document could be useful as study notes or exam preparation for radiologic technology students.
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Attenuation: a. is radiation that emerges from the patient b. describes changes in the x-ray beam as it travels through the patient c. produces only scatter radiation d. occurs only at doses used in radiation therapy - Describes changes in the x-ray beam as it travels through the patient Which photon-tissue interaction makes radiography possible because of its creation of image contrast? a. Compton b. Coherent c. Photoelectric d. Pair production - Photoelectric Which photon-tissue interaction produces radiation that may expose others in the room during fluoroscopy? a. Compton b. Coherent c. Photoelectric d. Pair production - Compton The SI unit of absorbed dose: a. Coulombs/kilogram b. Gray c. Curie d. Rad - Gray The SI unit of radioactivity: a. Becqueral b. Rem c. Quality factor d. Curie - Becqueral Measurement of positive and negative particles created when radiation ionizes atoms in the air: a. Becquerel
b. Sievert c. Roentgen d. Curie - Roentgen Linear energy transfer: a. is the same for all types of radiation b. is the same for wave and particulate radiations used in diagnosis and treatment c. occurs only during x-ray procedures d. varies for different types of radiation - Varies for different types of radiation The unit of the curie would be used in what imaging modality? a. Radiography b. CT c. MRI d. Nuclear Medicine - Nuclear Medicine The smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element: a. compound b. atom c. molecule d. neutron - Atom Atomic mass refers to: a. the number of protons plus the number of neutrons b. the number of electrons plus the number of protons c. the number of electrons plus the number of neutrons d. the number of protons - Number of protons plus number of neutrons X-rays travel as a bundles of energy called: a. protons b. phasers c. particles d. photons - Photons The height of a sine wave:
Iliac crest In digital fluoroscopy and computed radiography, the energy must be changed to digital form by a(n): a. digital-to-analog converter b. flux-capacitor c. analog-to-digital converter d. DVD-ROM - Analog-to-digital converter An algorithm is: a. a mathematical hypothesis used in imaging b. a mathematical formula used to reconstruct the image in digital imaging c. an advanced imaging procedure d. the mathematical basis for film-screen imaging - A mathematical formula used to reconstruct the image in digital imaging In computed radiography, each pixel corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient known as a(n): a. pathology b. density c. voxel d. artifact - Voxel A digital image is composed of rows and columns known as a: a. photonic image b. matrix c. digital d. cyborg assimilator - Matrix Image brightness in computed radiography may be adjusted by: a. doubling the mAs b. changing the window level c. repeating the exposure d. using digital fluoroscopy - Changing the window level The window level in computed radiography is the:
a. area of the patient being irradiated b. amount of radiation needed to obtain the image c. midpoint of densities d. toe of the H & D curve - Midpoint of densities A physician has ordered a CT scan of the chest on a patient from the psych floor. The exam requires a contrast medium to be given. The patient left the floor without a consent form being signed. Once in CT, it was discovered that there was no consent form. CT calls the floor to asks if there was anyone to give consent. The patient's 16-year old son is the only person available and he gives a verbal consent. What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken? a. The radiographer knowing the need f - The radiographer is aware she cannot use the verbal consent from the son, so she sends the patient back to the floor and documents all the information and actions. A physician has ordered a CT scan of the chest on a patient from the psych floor. The exam requires a contrast medium to be given. The patient left the floor without a consent form being signed. Once in CT, it was discovered that there was no consent form. CT calls the floor to asks if there was anyone to give consent. The patient's 16-year old son is the only person available and he gives a verbal consent. What is the LEAST appropriate action that can be taken? a. The radiographer knowing the - The radiographer knowing the need for the contrast medium, checks the verbal consent box and proceeds with the procedure injecting the contrast medium. Infectious waste is placed in containers: a. made of lead b. properly labeled as to the type of waste therein c. that will be incinerated d. only made of plastic - Properly labeled as to the type of waste therein Needles and syringes must be disposed of in: a. lead containers b. sharps containers c. plastic bags d. metal pans - Sharps containers Causing a patient to become apprehensive of being injured is called:
22 rem The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure, is: a. 0.5 mrem b. 500 mrem c. 0.05 rem d. 0.1 rem - 0.1 rem The secondary protective barrier used in room shielding must be at least how thick? a. 1/22 inch Al equivalent b. 1/16 inch Al equivalent c. 1/16 inch Pb equivalent d. 1/32 inch Pb equivalent - 1/32 inch Pb equivalent The intensity of the scattered beam is 1/1000 the intensity of the primary beam at a ____ angle 1 meter from the patient. a. 45 degree b. 25 degree c. 90 degree d. 10 degree - 90 degree The transformer that operates on the principle of self-induction is the: a. step-up transformer b. step-down transformer c. induction transformer d. autotransformer - Autotransformer Electronic timers used in x-ray equipment allow for exposure times as low as: a. 1/100 second b. 1/1000 second c. 1 microsecond d. there is no limit to how short the exposure can be - 1/1000 second To ensure consistency of radiographic quality from one exposure to the next, what device may be used?
a. electronic timer b. automatic collimation c. automatic exposure control d. falling load generator - Automatic exposure control (AEC) What happens when a predetermined level of ionization is reached in the ionization chamber? a. The unit shuts off because of a malfunction b. The maximum allowable time has been reached c. The highest allowable dose to the patient has been reached d. The exposure is terminated - The exposure is terminated An x-ray machine that uses a continually decreasing mA for the shortest times possible uses a(n): a. AEC b. falling load generator c. ionization chamber d. phototimer - Falling load generator Radiographic contrast in computed radiography may be adjusted by changing the: a. window level b. window width c. area of the patient being irradiated d. imaging plate - Window width The amount of darkness on a radiograph is controlled primarily by: a. kVp b. focal-spot size c. AEC d. mAs - mAs Which of the following angles is required for an AP projection of the sacrum? a. 5 degrees caudad b. 5 degrees cephalad c. 15 degrees caudad d. 15 degrees cephalad - 15 degrees cephalad
d. Body - Fundus The contrast step used during sensitometric testing is located where on the H & D curve? a. toe b. shoulder c. body, just below shoulder d. density value of 2.0 - Body, just below shoulder Violation of confidentiality defines: a. assault b. battery c. false imprisonment d. invasion of privacy - Invasion of privacy Neglect or omission of reasonable care defines: a. Respondeat superior b. Res ipsa loquitur c. negligence d. unintentional misconduct - Negligence Bradycardia indicates a pulse of: a. more than 100 beats per minute b. fewer than 60 beats per minute c. greater than 90 d. less than 50 - Fewer than 60 beats per minutes What item contains all equipment and drugs needed during respiratory or cardiac arrest: a. crash cart b. suction unit c. defibrillator d. sphygmomanometer - Crash cart What instrument is used to measure blood pressure? a. crash cart
b. suction unit c. defibrillator d. sphygmomanometer - Sphygomomanometer If the radiation dose 6 feet from the x-ray table is 5 R, what is the dose at a distance of 3 feet? a. 20 R b. 10 R c. 1.25 R d. 2.5 R - 20 R The minimum source-to-skin distance for fixed fluoroscopes is: a. 10 inches b. 12 inches c. 15 inches d. 18 inches - 15 inches The use of 1 mm of gonadal lead shielding on female patients may reduce gonad dose by up to: a. 50% b. 75% c. 85% d. 95% - 50% Cells that are oxygenated are more susceptible to radiation damage. This describes: a. Target theory b. direct effect c. doubling dose d. oxygen enhancement ratio - Oxygen enhancement ratio The blood count is depressed following a whole body dose equivalent of at least how many rads? a. 10 b. 25 c. 5 d. 1 - 25 Highly reactive ions that have unpaired electrons in the outer shell are called:
The device in the x-ray circuit that changes AC to DC is the: a. autotransformer b. step-up transformer c. rectifier d. falling load generator - Rectifier What type of current is required for proper operation of the x-ray tube? a. direct b. falling load c. alternating d. fluctuating - Direct The head of the humerus articulates with which part of the scapula? a. Glenoid cavity b. Olecranon process c. Scapular notch d. Styloid process - Glenoid cavity What is the name of the joint between the two bones of the shoulder girdle? a. Acromioclavicular joint b. Shoulder joint c. Sternoclavicular joint d. Scapular notch - Acromioclavicular (AC) joint In the hypersthenic patient, how does the stomach lie? a. Low and vertical b. Low and horizontal c. High and vertical d. High and horizontal - High and horizontal Which of the following positions/projections would be required to demonstrate the mobility of the cervical spine? a. Flexion and extension laterals b. Inversion and eversion obliques
c. Internal and external rotation d. AP and PA projections - Flexion and extension laterals The innominate bone is formed by the fusion of which three bones? a. Pubis, trochanter, pelvis b. Ilium, ischium, femur c. Ileum, ischium, pubis d. Ischium, pubis, ilium - Ischium, pubis, ilium Which decubitus position is preferred for demonstrating air and fluid levels in the abdomen? a. Dorsal decubitus b. Ventral decubitus c. Right lateral decubitus d. Left lateral decubitus - Left lateral decubitus Which of the following grid errors will result in an image that shows normal density in the middle but decreased density on the sides and may follow removal and replacement of the grid? a. Upside down b. Off-level c. Lateral decentering d. Grid-focus decentering - Upside down Grid frequency is described as the: a. height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips b. distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips c. number of lead strips per inch or centimeter d. SID at which the grid may be used - Number of lead strips per inch or centimeter Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left colic (splenic) flexure? a. Supine b. Prone c. RAO d. LAO - LAO Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the rectum filled with barium?
d. MI - MI Most radiation-induced damage to cells occurs: a. at diagnostic levels of radiation b. during fluoroscopy c. at doses of radiation much higher than that used in radiography d. from background radiation - At doses of radiation much higher than that used in radiography A concept of radiologic practice that encourages radiation users to adopt measures that keep the dose to the patient and themselves at minimum levels is called: a. LET b. RBE c. MPD d. ALARA - ALARA Which of the following is(are) relatively insensitive to radiation? a. nerve cells b. reproductive cells c. epithelial tissue d. immature sperm cells - Nerve cells Somatic effects of radiation: a. are common b. are caused when a large dose of high-LET radiation is received by a large area of the body c. are caused following exposure of DNA d. include genetic mutations - Are caused when a large dose of high-LET radiation is received by a large area of the body The best way to keep radiation dose to the patient low is: a. distance b. shielding c. time d. avoiding repeat exposures - Avoiding repeat exposures X-rays may remove electrons from atoms in the body by a process called:
a. electrification b. exposure c. ionization d. radicalizing - Ionization Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a. Maxilla b. Mandible c. Lacrimal d. Ethmoid - Ethmoid The result of thermionic emission is a(n): a. recoil electron b. electron cloud c. scattered photon d. Characteristic photon - Electron cloud The focusing cup is located at the: a. cathode b. anode c. x-ray tube window d. autotransformer - Cathode An interaction that produces x-rays at the anode as a result of outer-shell electrons filling holes in the K-shell is called: a. Characteristic b. Photoelectric c. Compton d. Brems - Characteristic When a quality control test is performed to ensure that adjacent mA stations are accurate, the results must be within this amount of one another: a. 2% of SID b. 4% c. 10% d. 5% -
Which of the following sets of exposure factors will produce the radiograph with the lowest contrast? a. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID b. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID c. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID d. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID - 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID Beam restriction has the following effect on contrast: a. decrease contrast b. longer scale of contrast c. shorter scale of contrast d. no effect on contrast - Shorter scale of contrast As kVp inceases, there is an increased production of: a. long wavelengths b. low-energy waves c. electrons d. short wavelengths - Short wavelengths Infectious waste must be handled according to which of the following? a. radiation protection guidelines b. radiology department rules c. CDC d. the condition of the patient - CDC Normal adult respiration is: a. greater than 100 beats per minutes b. fewer than 60 beats per minutes c. 12 - 16 breaths per minutes d. 12 - 16 beats per minutes - 12 - 16 breaths per minutes What item is used to administer oxygen through the nose? a. crash cart b. suction unit
c. defibrillator d. nasal cannula - Nasal cannula What type of infection transmission if defined as being spread primarily on contaminated items, food, or water? a. contact b. airborne c. droplet d. common vehicle - Common vehicle What item is used to restore normal heartbeat? a. crash cart b. suction unit c. defibrillator d. sphygmomanometer - defibrillator The most common effect from exposure to ionizing radiation is: a. mutations b. ionization of atoms in the cells c. cell death d. nothing - Nothing Radiation doses up to ___ are considered low risk to the embryo-fetus a. 5 rads b. 5 to 10 rads c. 1 rad d. 15 to 20 rads - 15 - 20 rads As kVp is increased: a. density decreases b. scale of contrast lengthens c. recorded detail increases d. contrast increases - Scale of contrast lengthens The relationship between kVp and density is: