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RCIS CCI EXAM 6 QUESTION AND ANSWER
all of the following would be considered pt lab tests that are typically ordered prior to the pt having a cardiac cath CBC coagulopathy blood chemistry possibly a type and cross-match the first line medications used for conscious sedation would include midazolam demerol morphine fentanyl all of the might be used for teaching the pt about their cath except allowing them to view another pt having a cath although IV access is considered the second lifeline for the pt, which of the following statements would be considered the most correct regarding the IV access IV access allows the administration of emergency meds to counteract such conditions as vagal or allergic reactions all but which of the might be considered a major complication of a cardiac cath joint pain when a pt is admitted to the hospital in anticipation of having a cardiac cath procedure, when should the nursing staff start their education when the pt is admitted if the pt needs to be intubated, the mallampati class 4 pt would be considered which of the following levels of difficulty more difficult what are some of the factors that might be associated with a class 4 mallampati dysmorphic jaw short neck
mouth or jaw abnormalities advanced rheumatoid arthritis history of sleep apnea, stridor, or snoring when a pt is scheduled for a cardiac cath, they must sign an informed consent prior to the procedure being performed. which of the following people would be considered the person that usually obtains the consent operator/ physician performing the procedure because of the fact that sedative agents tend to impair the pts airway reflexes putting them at risk for aspiration, how long prior to the procedure should the pt be kept NPO for solid and non clear liquids at least 8 hrs if the cardiac cath pt is allergic to fish and taking NPH insulin, which of the following meds should they not be given during the cardiac cath procedure protamine the pt is administered ____ to reverse the systemic heparinization after a cardiac cath protamine a permanent/temp pacemaker might be needed for which of the following conditions
- previously demonstrated high-dose conduction block
- prophylactic use for rotational atherectomy and thrombectomy
- symptomatic bradycardia
- a pre-existing LBBB with an anticipated R sided heart study
- transluminal septal artery ablation in pts with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
- with a rapid ventricular pacing occurring during an aortic balloon valvuloplasty
- a MI with a trifasicular block the adverse reactions for aspirin would include all of the following tinnitus bleeding hepatotoxicity GI distress ulcers nausea/vomiting bronchospasms
of the following, which effects of radiation would be governed by biologic damage that affects the bodys chromosomes causing an alteration in their genetic code genetic effect _____ will move an electron from the atomic structure biologic effect ____ will result in biologic damage during the lifetime of the pt deterministic effect ___ will be when the laws of probability rather than absolute value would govern stochastic of the following, which would be considered a cardiac anomaly coarctation of the aorta what are some of the cardiac anomalies
- transposition of the great vessels
- persistent trunctus arteriosus
- tricuspid atresia
- total anomalous pulm venous return
- congenital aortic stenosis
- coarctation of the AO
- patent ductus arteriosus
- patent foramen ovale
- ventricular septal defect
- atrial septal defect
- metrology of fallot which of the following would be considered a careless practice that could increase the risk for staffs exposure during a cardiac cath
- not returning used needles to the needle container or counter on the back table
- not handling guide wires and catheters correctly
- squirting vigorously into the back table waste bowl from a syringe causing splashing
- the tossing of bloody guaze across the table into a waste bin the normal range for CO would be considered which of the following 4-6 L/min
which of the following would be considered the best description for hypoxemia an insufficient concentration of dissolved O2 in arterial blood ____ is when a persons body is deprived of an adequate O2 supply hypoxia the chest pain that a pt experiences that is secondary to cardiac ischemia would be considered which of the following angina ____ occurs bc of a mismatch between the myocardial O2 demand and the supply; if the demand of O2 is greater than the supply bc of atherosclerosis it can cause this angina post procedural interventions for a cardiac cath should include all of the following except the pt should be up walking the halls after 30 mins post procedure which of the following works to completely enclose the heart and also helps anchor and protect it; helps to keep the heart from over distending pericardium ____ is the inner layer of the heart wall endocardium ____ is the middle layer of the heart wall myocardium of the following X-ray sources, which would have an arm on one end and a camera on the other end C arm this is an X-ray machine on a movable frame with an X-ray source C arm the PMI (point of max impulse) is often referred to as which of the following apical pulse a sharply pointed T wave on an EKG might be caused by which of the following
elastic recoil vessel remodeling intimal thickening which of the following types of guide-wires would be considered the safest for use during a cardiac cath procedure J-tipped ____ has the potential to cause a subintimal dissection or tear of the blood vessel wall straight tipped guide wire the fick formula: VO2 determines which of the following? (CaO2-CvO2) x 10 CO the ____ in the fick formula would be considered the venous O2 content CvO the ____ in the fick formula would be considered the O2 consumption (uptake) VO the ____ in the fick formula would be considered changes in arterial O2 concentration CaO all but which of the following might be considered a practice that would increase the risk of the stabbing exposed during the cardiac cath procedure placing the bloody gauze in the correct disposal area dose equivalent and which of the following might be considered a unit of dose measurement for radiation absorbed there are 2 units of dose management for radiation dose equivalent absorbed which of the following would be considered typical for vital signs after the cardiac cath lab pt returns to the floor after their procedures Q 15 mins x 4, Q 30 mins x 2, then every hr x 2
of the following terms, which would be correct for the blood that is ejected from the LV into the AO CO CO is measured in L/min what is the normal CO 4-8 L/min the boys blood vessels consist of 3 layers. What are the 3 layers intimal medial adventitial which of the following is considered the most common reason for the initiation of an IABP cardiogenic shock of the following vasodilating agents, which is typically used with MRI perfusion imaging dipyidamole adenosine the principles of radiation safety in a healthcare facility would not include exposure to radiation is not cumulative which of the following would be considered correct for common heart blocks first degree AV Mobitz I (second degree AV) Mobitz II (second degree AV) third degree AV pulmonary emboli and which of the following could be conditions that could cause a high pulmonary artery press
- left ventricular failure
- pulmonary emboli
- LV failure
- Peripheral PA stenoisis
- pulmonary hypertension
the CvO2 would be the venous O2 content when the contrast medium is being administered during a cardiac cath lab procedure by the closed system when should the medium bottle be changed prior to it being empty how long is the normal PR interval 0.12 - 0.20 secs the ____ would equal the time between an atrial contraction (P) and ventricular depolarization (systole); if this is greater than 0.20 secs, then there is some level of blockage at the AV node PR interval of the following, which could be included as equipment in the pediatric cardiac cath lab defibrillator resuscitation equipmetn the pts CO is typically increased by all of the following except sleep what are some conditions that might increase a persons CO exercise body temp strong emotion sepsis surgery trauma included in the steps during a cardiac cath, which would follow once the fem art has been located there will be a small skin incision made about 2 cm below the expected point of vascular entry where should the nurses fingers be placed prior to removing the arterial sheath after a cardiac cath 2 cm prox and slightly medial to the skin incision which of the cardiac cath sheath removal devices uses pneumatic press femstop
what are the things that make up the femstop inflatable transparent dome connection tubing stopcock an elastic belt a handheld femstop manometer a plastic arch which of the following is typically included as a premedication for a cardiac cath procedure benadryl 25 mg orally sometimes valium 10 mg orally of the following, which would be considered the most frequent lesion producing obstruction in the pediatric pt pulmonary valve stenosis what is pulmonary valve stenosis typically caused by dysplasia fusion of the valvular leaflets the most commonly uses end hole coronary angio cath might be considered JR what are the 2 most common end hole cath JR JL all of the following could be considered devices developed to facilitate hemostatic efforts post cardiac cath vascular clips external C clamps collagen plugs suture mediated topical hemostasis accelerators how long should the venous puncture site be compressed after removal of the cath for the pediatric pt 5 mins
pulm congestion exertional dyspnea what size inoue balloon would be used if the pt is 160-180 cm tall 28 mm balloon what size inoue balloon would be used if the pt is <160 cm tall 26 mm balloon what size inoue balloon would be used if the pt is >180 cm tall 30 mm balloon of the wave forms on a cardiac complex, which would represent the septal depolarization Q wave which number arterial pulse classification would be considered "bounding" 3 prior to the radial art being used as an access site in the CCL, the allens test is performed. if the results of this test shows a dampened but distinct pulse wave, it would be considered which type of grade type B prior to the radial art being used as an access site in the CCL, the allens test is performed. if the results of this test shows no change in the pulse wave, it would be considered which type of grade grade A prior to the radial art being used as an access site in the CCL, the allens test is performed. if the results of this test shows a loss of phasic pulse waveform, it would be considered which type of grade grade c which size introducer is typically used for the L heart cath procedures 11 cm (accommodates cath sizes 4F, 5F, and 6F) depolarization of the parking fibers would be represented by the ___ wave S wave
septal depolarization would be represented by this on the EKG Q wave ventricular depolarization would be represented by what on the EKG R wave upon arrival of a pt in the Ccl the nurse should assess which of the following BP Baseline EKG lab values O2 sats a mechanical rheolytic cath would be considered which of the following angiojet which of the following terms would be considered correct for when the blood flow in the target art stops no reflow ___ is considered when there is no blood flow in the target art just after the distal seating of the guide wire or after the 1st or 2nd balloon inflation no reflow a micro emboli becoming lodged in the microvascular system is considered the main reason for this to occur no reflow which of the following conditions could be contraindications for a transeptal heart cath atrial myxoma the pt who is unable to lie flat low platelet count anticoagulant therapy R or L atrial thrombus IVC obstruction or mass if the sledding technique is used for an endomyocardial biopsy cath procedure, which of the following veins would be punctured
which of the following would be considered the half life of parenteral morphine 2-4 hrs (normal dose is 10 mg) the most common of the reasons for the pt to be placed on an IABP is cardiogenic shock what are some reasons that a pt might need an IABP bridge to transplant PAD MI intractable ventricular arrhythmias hemodynamic support for a high risk cardiac surgery hemodynamic support for a high risk CCL procedure what year was the percutaneous therapy for mitral commissurotomy innovated by inoue 1982 of the following which would not be considered a trigger type for an IABP hyperkalemic what are the trigger types for an IABP pacer atrial fib ECG arterial press internal a large dissection and which of the following might be considered complications that could require a consultation with a vascular surgeon enlarging hematoma thrombotic occlusion the starches system consists of which of the following an exchange sheath a dilator a J tipped guide wire
the ____ _____ would be considered a test that is done to check for the occlusion of the radial or ulnar arts allens test which of the following would be considered an appropriate dosage for amiodarone for administration during a high risk cath 150 mg over 10 mins followed by an infusion rate of 1 mg/min 300 mg rapid IV infusion (diluted in 20-30 ml of fluid) all but which of the following might be considered a part of a starclose the plunger interventions which might be used for the treatment of a sheath that is stuck would be considered all of the following
- warm compresses
- give sedation or analgesics
- nifedipine, NTG, or verapamil
- axillary block if a complication occurs post radial art cath and manual compression must be performed, which would be considered a typical holding time 10-15 mins vigorous stretching of the R atrium has the potential to cause which of the following arrhythmias atrial fib SVT occlusive press should be held for approx ____ mins when performing annual press while removing the cath sheaths 5 (then slowly decrease press until distal pulses are felt and continue holding)
