SAChE Module Explosion Hazards exam questions, Exams of Advanced Education

SAChE Module Explosion Hazards exam questions

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2025/2026

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SAChE Module Explosion Hazards exam questions
1.
c:
Which case discussed involved improper storage of a large quantity of explosible material
near combustible
material?
a.
Flixborough
b.
Mexico
City
LPG
terminal
c.
West
Texas
Fertilizer
Company
d.
Imperial
Sugar
Company
e.
BP Texas City Refinery
2.
d:
The
CCPS
defines
a/an
as
"a
release
of
energy
that
causes
a
pressure
discontinuity
or
blast
wave"
a.
pressure
wave
b.
blast
c.
shock
wave
d.
explosion
3.
1,
2,
and
4:
Which
of
the
following
statements
is/are
true
regarding
the
Imperial
Sugar
Company
incident?
1.
Airborne
combustible
sugar
dust
accumulated
above
the
minimum
explosible
concentration
inside
the
newly
enclosed steel belt assembly
2.
Emergency
evacuation
plans
were
inadequate
3.
The conveying equipment was appropriately designed to minimize the release ofsugar and sugar
dust into the work
area
4.
Inadequate
housekeeping
practices
resulted
in
significant
accumulations
of
combustible
sugar
dust
4.
d:
Which incident discussed in this unit was a cornerstone event that prompted the need to
address process safety
issues around the world?
a.
Mexico
City
LPG
terminal
b.
Imperial
Sugar
Company
c.
West
Texas
Fertilizer
Company
d.
Flixborough
e.
BP Texas City refinery
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pf4
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SAChE Module Explosion Hazards exam questions

  1. c: Which case discussed involved improper storage of a large quantity of explosible material near combustible material? a. Flixborough b. Mexico City LPG terminal c. West Texas Fertilizer Company d. Imperial Sugar Company e. BP Texas City Refinery
  2. d: The CCPS defines a/an as "a release of energy that causes a pressure discontinuity or blast wave" a. pressure wave b. blast c. shock wave d. explosion
  3. 1, 2, and 4: Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Imperial Sugar Company incident?
  4. Airborne combustible sugar dust accumulated above the minimum explosible concentration inside the newly enclosed steel belt assembly
  5. Emergency evacuation plans were inadequate
  6. The conveying equipment was appropriately designed to minimize the release ofsugar and sugar dust into the work area
  7. Inadequate housekeeping practices resulted in significant accumulations of combustible sugar dust
  8. d: Which incident discussed in this unit was a cornerstone event that prompted the need to address process safety issues around the world? a. Mexico City LPG terminal b. Imperial Sugar Company c. West Texas Fertilizer Company d. Flixborough e. BP Texas City refinery
  1. True: TRUE or FALSE: The initial change in the gas density, pressure, and velocity of air that occurs with a blast can be either discontinuous or gradual
  2. d: When a discontinuous change occurs in the gas density, pressure, and velocity of the air as a result of a blast, this is referred to as a. a. blast b. pressure wave c. explosion d. shock wave
  3. a: What type of explosion occurred in the incident at the BP Texas City refinery? a. Vapor Cloud Explosion (VCE) b. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosions (BLEVEs)
  4. a: Which incident discussed in this unit resulted in the greatest loss of life? a. Mexico City LPG terminal b. Flixborough c. BP Texas City refinery d. Imperial Sugar Company e. West Texas Fertilizer Company
  5. a: Facilities are much more aware of dust explosion hazards as a result of which case discussed in this unit? a. Imperial Sugar Company b. Mexico City LPG terminal c. West Texas Fertilizer Company d. BP Texas City refinery e. Flixborough
  6. b: The CSB determined that the first dust explosion that occurred at the Imperial Sugar Company initiated in . a. the packaging area b. the enclosed steel belt conveyor c. a railcar at the bulk sugar loading area d. the oflce space adjacent to one of the sugar silos
  7. 1, 3, and 4: Which of the following could apply to physical explosions?
  1. The released material must be flammable
  2. true: TRUE or FALSE: Combustible aerosols are sometimes created intentionally.
  3. false: TRUE or FALSE: Test data suggests that only aerosols in a confined cloud have the potential to explode.
  4. b: The transition from deflagration to detonation is referred to as a. a. slow flame front to fast flame front transition b. DDT c. pre-sonic to post-sonic transition d. D2D transition
  5. N/A: Among other sources, the source of energy for a pressure vessel burst resulting in a physical explosion can be:
  6. overfilling
  7. combustion
  8. phase change
  9. chemical reaction
  10. b: In a combustible dust explosion, pyrolysis converts a portion of the dust particle into shorter chain molecule that are in form and will then burn. a. solid b. vapor c. liquid
  11. 1 and 3: Physical explosions can occur by:
  12. RPT
  13. Runaway reactions
  14. Vessel rupture
  15. Solid explosives, such as TNT
  16. 2, 3, and 4: Which of the following elements appear on both the dust explosion pentagon and the fire triangle?
  17. Confinement
  18. Oxygen
  19. Heat
  20. Fuel
  1. Dispersion
  2. true: TRUE or FALSE: Combustible liquid aerosols can lead to deflagrations.
  3. d: If a vessel containing liquid propane suddenly loses containment, the pressure will drop and. a. the liquid propane will burst into flame b. the liquid propane will flow onto the ground and pose a pool fire hazard c. the liquid propane will freeze d. the liquid propane will flash to vapor
  4. b: If a chemical reactor's process control fails, a may occur that has the potential to overpressure the vessel, resulting in an explosion if the contents cannot be successfully vented. a. RPT b. runaway reaction c. BLEVE d. pressure vessel burst
  5. 1, 2, 3, and 4: What are the impacts of fragments and missiles produced by explosions at process facilities?
  6. Secondary fires or explosions
  7. Injury to people
  8. Damage to storage tanks, process equipment and pipelines
  9. Damage to structures
  10. false: TRUE or FALSE: Toxics released due to an explosion are almost always consumed by fire and therefore communities surrounding process facilities are not considered to be at risk of exposure to toxics if the toxics were released as a result of an explosion
  11. b: When measuring blast wave pressure, if the pressure transducer is at right angles to the blast wave, the overpressure measured is called the: a. Peak wave b. Side-on overpressure c. Reflected overpressure d. Shock front
  12. false: TRUE or FALSE: The negative phase of a blast wave does not contribute to the damage caused by the blast wave.
  1. Fragments/missiles
  2. Blast ettects
  3. Secondary fires/explosions
  4. 2, 4, and 5: Factors that need to be considered to determine the distance a fragment could travel in an explosion include fragment:
  5. Temperature
  6. Trajectory
  7. Color
  8. Shape
  9. Mass
  10. 1 and 3: In the list below, identify two parameters used to characterize the explosive behavior for deflagrations?
  11. Maximum oressure
  12. Maximum temperature
  13. Maximum pressure rate
  14. Lower explosive limit
  15. b: Burning velocity with turbulence a. remains unchanged b. increases c. decreases
  16. 1, 3, and 5: In general, the AIT of a material decreases...
  17. .with increasing oxygen concentration
  18. .as mixtures become lean
  19. .with increasing pressure
  20. .as mixtures become rich
  21. .in the presence of catalytic surfaces
  22. a: For most flammable gases, an MIE of is commonly used. a. 0.25 mJ b. 1.0 mJ c. 10 mJ d. 25 mJ
  1. 1, 2, 3, and 4: In what way(s) can ignition be achieved in the 20 liter sphere test?
  2. A hot wire
  3. A chemical igniter
  4. An exploding fuse wire
  5. A spark
  6. A match
  7. false: TRUE or FALSE: Flammability limits (LFL and UFL) are always defined with respect to fuel mixtures with air, not other oxidants.
  8. a: The AIT of a mixture generally as mixtures become either rich or lean. a. increases b. decreases c. remains unchanged
  9. 1 and 3: In general, the faster the fundamental burning velocity, the greater the potential for the fuel to:
  10. Transition to detonation in a pipeline system
  11. Cause a boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion
  12. Generate hazardous pressures in a vapor cloud explosion
  13. Transition to a deflagration in a pipeline explosion
  14. d: The is the lowest temperature at which a fuel-oxidant mixture will spontaneously ignite under specified test conditions. a. Minimum ignition energy b. Spontaneous ignition temperature c. Minimum ignition temperature d. Autoignition temperature
  15. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5: The minimum ignition energy depends on:
  16. Temperature
  17. Concentration
  18. Mode of ignition
  19. The specific chemical(s)
  20. Pressure
  21. false: TRUE or FALSE: The elimination of ignition sources can be relied on as the primary

10 / 12

  1. 1, 2, and 3: Which of the following statements are true regarding damage-limiting construction?
  2. The practice can be used to limit the equipment damage that might otherwise occur if a vessel were to rupture inside a building
  3. NFPA 68 provides prescriptive design techniques for damage-limiting construction for dust and flammable vapor explosions
  4. The practice attempts to direct the forces of the explosion away from other process equipment or potentially occupied areas
  5. The practice is used to prevent damage to structures only
  6. b: When considering where occupied structures will be located during facility sitting analysis, what is perhaps the most important factor to keep in mind to protect against the ettects of explosions? a. The flammability of the material in the process b. Separation distance between the occupied structures and the process c. The toxicity of the material in the process d. The location of firefighting equipment and firefighting personnel
  7. c: Which of the following resources is best for understanding explosion vent sizing and design criteria? a. NEC b. NFPA 67 c. NFPA 68 d. NFPA 69
  8. 2 and 3: Why were people and structures outside of the T2 Laboratories fence line attected by the explosion that occurred at the facility as a result of a runaway reaction?
  9. Poor communication with the surrounding community
  10. Structures with no blast protection
  11. Poor sitting of occupied structures
  12. The ettects of the explosion could not have been anticipated
  13. a: A reduction of oxidant concentration has little impact on the until the oxidant concentration has almost reached the. a. lower flammability limit, limiting oxygen concentration b. upper flammability limit, limiting oxygen concentration c. upper flammability limit, lower flammability limit

11 / 12 d. limiting oxygen concentration, lower flammability limit

  1. d: In a compartmented system in which there are separate but interconnected volumes, the pressure developed by the deflagration in one compartment can cause a pressure rise in the unburned gas in the the interconnected compartment. When the flame front reaches the second compartment, the explosion pressure is greater due to the increase in initial pressure. This is referred to as: a. 2-stage pressure b. Leading pressure c. Pressure transference d. Pressure piling
  2. a: What does the term "run-up distance" refer to? a. The distance between the steady deflagration and the formation of a steady detonation wave b. 10 times the diameter of the pipe in which a flame is traveling c. The distance the flame continues to travel after encountering an isolation device d. The distance between the flame front's current location and the isolation device
  3. N/A (not d): What term is used by the CCPS to describe a system condition in which under no condition reactants or products are exchanged between the chemical system and its environment? a. Containment b. Inactive c. Secure d. Closed
  4. b: Unlike , which allows the static charge to drain away, equalizes the potential charges but does not eliminate the static charge. a. bonding, grounding b. grounding, bonding
  5. b: Elbows, bends, and internal obstacles may increase turbulence run-up distance. a. and increase b. and reduce c. but does not attect
  6. c: The CCPS defines as "construction of equipment (or a building) with