Download [SCPro] SCPro Certification Review Guide and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Guide
Question 1. Which of the following best distinguishes supply chain management (SCM) from logistics? A) SCM focuses only on transportation, while logistics includes procurement. B) Logistics is a subset of SCM that deals with the movement and storage of goods. C) SCM deals exclusively with information flow, whereas logistics handles physical flow. D) Logistics manages supplier relationships, while SCM handles customer service. Answer: B Explanation: Logistics (transport, warehousing, distribution) is one component of the broader SCM framework, which also includes procurement, product development, and demand planning. Question 2. In the Triple Bottom Line concept, which pillar addresses a company’s carbon footprint and resource consumption? A) Economic B) Social C) Environmental D) Financial Answer: C Explanation: The environmental pillar evaluates ecological impacts such as emissions, waste, and resource use. Question 3. A company that competes primarily on low price is most likely to adopt which supply chain strategy? A) Cost leadership B) Responsiveness C) Differentiation
Guide
D) Innovation focus Answer: A Explanation: Cost leadership emphasizes minimizing total cost through efficient processes, lean inventory, and economies of scale. Question 4. Which SCOR process is primarily responsible for developing a demand plan and balancing supply and demand? A) Source B) Make C) Plan D) Deliver Answer: C Explanation: The Plan process includes demand forecasting, supply planning, and aligning resources to meet projected demand. Question 5. The Delphi method is classified as which type of forecasting technique? A) Quantitative B) Qualitative C) Time series D) Causal Answer: B Explanation: Delphi relies on expert consensus through iterative questionnaires, making it a qualitative method. Question 6. Which quantitative forecasting method assigns exponentially decreasing weights to older observations?
Guide
Question 9. Strategic sourcing primarily aims to: A) Reduce purchase price through single-source contracts. B) Shift purchasing from a transactional to a value‑creating activity. C) Automate order entry using EDI. D) Consolidate all suppliers into a single global vendor. Answer: B Explanation: Strategic sourcing focuses on long‑term supplier relationships, cost reduction, risk mitigation, and value creation beyond price. Question 10. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) includes which of the following cost categories? A) Purchase price only B) Purchase price and freight costs only C) Purchase price, transportation, duties, storage, and quality costs D) Purchase price and inventory carrying cost only Answer: C Explanation: TCO accounts for all costs incurred from acquisition to disposal, including ancillary expenses like duties and quality-related costs. Question 11. A supplier scorecard that tracks on‑time delivery, quality defects, and cost variance is an example of: A) Supplier segmentation B) Supplier performance measurement C) Supplier risk assessment D) Supplier contract negotiation
Guide
Answer: B Explanation: Scorecards are tools to monitor and evaluate supplier performance across key metrics. Question 12. Which international regulation focuses on preventing bribery of foreign officials? A) ISO 26000 B) UN Global Compact C) OECD Anti‑Bribery Convention D) FCPA (Foreign Corrupt Practices Act) Answer: D Explanation: The U.S. FCPA prohibits companies from bribing foreign government officials to obtain or retain business. Question 13. In a Make‑to‑Order (MTO) production environment, the primary driver of lead time is: A) Forecast accuracy B) Production scheduling flexibility C) Safety stock levels D) Finished‑goods inventory turnover Answer: B Explanation: MTO builds products after receiving an order, so the ability to schedule and start production quickly determines lead time. Question 14. Which lean waste refers to excess inventory that ties up capital? A) Overproduction
Guide
Question 17. ISO 9001 certification primarily addresses: A) Environmental management B) Occupational health and safety C) Quality management systems D) Information security Answer: C Explanation: ISO 9001 sets requirements for a quality management system to ensure consistent product/service quality. Question 18. Which production strategy is most appropriate for a product with high demand variability and low unit cost? A) Make‑to‑Stock (MTS) B) Make‑to‑Order (MTO) C) Assemble‑to‑Order (ATO) D) Engineer‑to‑Order (ETO) Answer: C Explanation: ATO builds a base product to stock and finishes it after a customer order, balancing variability and cost. Question 19. Intermodal transportation that combines a container on a railcar and then onto a truck is known as: A) COFC (Container on Flat Car) B) TOFC (Trailer on Flat Car) C) LTL (Less‑Than‑Truckload) D) FCL (Full Container Load) Answer: A
Guide
Explanation: COFC involves moving a container on a flat railcar, then transferring to a truck for final delivery. Question 20. Under Incoterms® 2020, which term places the maximum responsibility on the seller, including import clearance? A) EXW (Ex Works) B) FOB (Free on Board) C) DDP (Delivered Duty Paid) D) CIF (Cost, Insurance & Freight) Answer: C Explanation: DDP requires the seller to deliver the goods ready for unloading at the buyer’s premises, handling all costs and risks. Question 21. A Transportation Management System (TMS) primarily provides: A) Warehouse layout optimization B) Real‑time carrier selection and route planning C) Supplier performance scoring D) Demand forecasting algorithms Answer: B Explanation: TMS software helps plan, execute, and optimize the physical movement of goods. Question 22. The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model assumes which of the following? A) Variable demand throughout the year B) Quantity discounts are available C) Constant demand and fixed ordering cost D) Unlimited storage capacity
Guide
D) Storing a variety of SKUs to meet diverse order profiles. Answer: D Explanation: Assortment ensures a broad range of SKUs are available to satisfy different customer orders. Question 26. Which picking method groups orders that share common items to reduce travel time? A) Zone picking B) Wave picking C) Batch picking D) Piece picking Answer: C Explanation: Batch picking consolidates multiple orders containing the same SKU, allowing a single pick for several orders. Question 27. Cross‑docking primarily reduces which cost component? A) Transportation fuel consumption B) Labor for order picking C) Inventory holding cost D) Packaging material cost Answer: C Explanation: By moving goods directly from receiving to shipping, cross‑docking minimizes storage time, thus reducing inventory carrying costs. Question 28. RFID technology in a Warehouse Management System (WMS) is mainly used for:
Guide
A) Automating order entry B) Real‑time location tracking of pallets and cases C) Calculating EOQ D) Forecasting demand trends Answer: B Explanation: RFID tags transmit data that allows instant identification and location of items within the warehouse. Question 29. Reverse logistics includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Product returns from customers B) Remanufacturing of used components C) Forward distribution to retailers D) Recycling of end‑of‑life items Answer: C Explanation: Forward distribution is part of the outbound logistics, not reverse logistics. Question 30. A closed‑loop supply chain is characterized by: A) One‑way flow of materials from supplier to customer. B) Integration of product design for easy disassembly and reuse. C) Exclusive focus on sourcing raw materials. D) Use of only third‑party logistics providers. Answer: B Explanation: Closed‑loop supply chains design products to be recovered, refurbished, or recycled, creating a circular flow.
Guide
Explanation: Order amplification due to batching, safety stock, and delayed information leads to increasing variability upstream. Question 34. Which of the following is a key performance indicator (KPI) for the “Deliver” process in SCOR? A) Order fulfillment cycle time B) Supplier on‑time delivery C) Production yield D) Inventory turnover Answer: A Explanation: Order fulfillment cycle time measures the speed from order receipt to delivery, a core Deliver KPI. Question 35. In demand management, a “price promotion” is used to: A) Reduce lead time for suppliers. B) Increase short‑term demand for a product. C) Lower the cost of goods sold. D) Extend product life cycles. Answer: B Explanation: Promotional pricing stimulates immediate demand spikes to move inventory or gain market share. Question 36. Which forecasting method uses historical sales data to compute a simple average of the last n periods? A) Weighted moving average B) Simple moving average
Guide
C) Exponential smoothing D) Linear regression Answer: B Explanation: Simple moving average adds the last n observations and divides by n. Question 37. A “lead‑time sandwich” in supply chain management refers to: A) The time between order placement and order receipt. B) The sum of supplier lead time and internal processing time. C) The difference between customer lead time and supplier lead time. D) The time a product spends in transit only. Answer: B Explanation: The lead‑time sandwich comprises upstream supplier lead time plus downstream internal processing time. Question 38. Which of the following best describes a “high‑risk supplier”? A) A supplier with the lowest unit price. B) A supplier located in a politically stable country. C) A supplier whose failure would cause significant operational disruption. D) A supplier that provides non‑critical components. Answer: C Explanation: High‑risk suppliers are those whose loss would severely impact production or service continuity. Question 39. The “Seven Wastes” of Lean do NOT include: A) Overprocessing
Guide
Question 42. The “last mile” problem in logistics primarily concerns: A) International customs clearance. B) Transportation from a distribution center to the final customer. C) Loading containers onto ships. D) Supplier inbound freight. Answer: B Explanation: The last mile is the final segment of delivery to the end consumer, often the most complex and costly. Question 43. A “push” production system is characterized by: A) Production based on actual customer orders. B) Production based on forecasted demand. C) Continuous flow without inventory. D) Make‑to‑order only. Answer: B Explanation: Push systems produce goods in advance of demand, relying on forecasts to drive production. Question 44. Which inventory classification method uses ABC analysis based on monetary value? A) FIFO B) LIFO C) Pareto principle D) JIT Answer: C
Guide
Explanation: ABC analysis applies the Pareto principle, categorizing items into A (high value), B (moderate), and C (low) based on consumption value. Question 45. In a make‑to‑stock environment, which metric is most critical for determining reorder point? A) Lead time demand variance B) Production cycle time C) Supplier minimum order quantity D) Product shelf life Answer: A Explanation: The reorder point must cover expected demand during lead time plus safety stock, which depends on demand variance. Question 46. Which of the following best describes “postponement” in supply chain strategy? A) Delaying the final assembly until customer order is received. B) Accelerating product launch to beat competitors. C) Extending payment terms with suppliers. D) Reducing the number of SKUs in the product line. Answer: A Explanation: Postponement postpones the final configuration or customization until demand is known, reducing risk. Question 47. A “green” logistics initiative that replaces diesel trucks with electric vehicles primarily impacts which sustainability pillar? A) Economic
Guide
Question 50. The “order‑to‑cash” cycle time is most directly reduced by: A) Increasing safety stock levels. B) Implementing electronic invoicing and automated payment processing. C) Extending customer credit terms. D. Adding more distribution centers. Answer: B Explanation: Automation of invoicing and payments speeds up the cash receipt portion of the cycle. Question 51. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a supplier scorecard? A) On‑time delivery percentage B) Defect rate per million opportunities C. Employee satisfaction index D) Cost variance against target Answer: C Explanation: Employee satisfaction is generally an internal HR metric, not a standard supplier performance measure. Question 52. In a “make‑to‑order” environment, the primary benefit of using a “configure‑to‑order” (CTO) system is: A) Reducing the number of required components. B) Enabling mass production of a single SKU. C) Allowing customers to select options that are assembled after order receipt. D) Eliminating the need for inventory tracking. Answer: C
Guide
Explanation: CTO lets customers choose product features, which are assembled post‑order, blending customization with some inventory of common modules. Question 53. Which KPI measures the proportion of orders delivered without any errors? A) Order fill rate B) Perfect order rate C) Inventory turnover D) Days sales of inventory (DSI) Answer: B Explanation: Perfect order rate captures orders that are complete, on‑time, and undamaged. Question 54. The “Goldilocks” inventory level refers to: A) The highest possible inventory to prevent stockouts. B) The lowest possible inventory to minimize holding costs. C) An inventory level that is just right—balancing service and cost. D) Inventory held only for seasonal peaks. Answer: C Explanation: The Goldilocks concept seeks an optimal, “just right” inventory balance. Question 55. Which of the following transportation modes is most suitable for high‑value, low‑volume shipments requiring fast delivery? A) Ocean freight B) Rail C) Air freight D) Barge
