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Security Forces SFTRG (Security Forces Training
Reference Guide) Comprehensive Exam COMPLETE
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Security Forces SFTRG (Security Forces Training Reference Guide) Comprehensive Exam. This guide is organized by the key topic areas covered in the SFTRG and draws from standard U.S. Air Force Security Forces training materials and examination content. SFTRG Exam Coverage Summary SFTRG 1: Foundations of Security Forces
- History and Heritage: Evolution from Air Police (AP) to Security Police (SP) to Security Forces (SF). o Key milestones: WWII Air Base Security Battalions, Korean War, Vietnam War (Operation Safe Side, Battle of Tan Son Nhut). o Modern operations: Operation Just Cause, Desert Storm, Enduring Freedom.
- Core Mission, Vision, and Ethos: "Protect, defend, and fight". o Symbolism: Falcon over crossed runways (the "Flash") and "Defensor Fortis" motto. o General Orders (3) and Code of Conduct.
- Professionalism and Ethics: Dignity, respect, integrity, impartial enforcement.
- Organizational Structure (S-Functions) : o S-1: Administration (personnel, awards). o S-2: Intelligence (anti-terrorism, investigations). o S-3: Operations and Training (largest branch, manages daily ops and readiness). o S-4: Logistics (supply, armory, vehicles). o S-5: Plans and Programs (security plans, SFMIS). o S-6: Communications (radios, COMSEC).
- Military Authority & Jurisdiction :
o Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ): Article 92 (lawful orders), Article 2 (who is subject to the UCMJ). o Types of Jurisdiction: Exclusive, Concurrent, Proprietary. o Martial Law: Qualified vs. Absolute.
- Stress Management: Stress Response System (Sympathetic & Parasympathetic), team resilience. SFTRG 2: Base Security Operations & Response Force Duties
- Physical Security Checks: Building check procedures (exterior & interior), forced entry indicators, use of MWD teams.
- Security Response Teams (SRTs): Composition (minimum 2 members), PL-1/2/ resource protection, response procedures.
- Alarm Response: BDOC/ECC notification, establishing 360-degree perimeter, joint sweep with alarm custodian.
- Nuclear/PL Resource Protection: Dedicated armed response requirements for PL- 1 resources (immediate internal & external response).
- Incident Command System (ICS): First arriving patrol establishes command, verifies incident, requests resources.
- National Defense Areas (NDAs): Establishment for PL-1/2/3 incidents off installation (e.g., aircraft crash).
- Anti-Hijacking Procedures: First few minutes are critical, uncertainty of intent. SFTRG 3: Area Security Operations, Rules of Engagement (ROE) & Use of Force
- Rules of Engagement (ROE): o Definition: Directives that delineate the circumstances and limitations for U.S. forces to initiate or continue combat engagement. o Two Categories: Self-Defense vs. Mission Accomplishment. o Core Drivers: Policy, Legal, Military (Executive Order 11850, protection of cultural sites). o CJCS Standing ROE (SROE): Inherent right of self-defense (Individual, Unit, National).
- Use of Force: o RAMP Acronym (for ROE application): R-eason to believe, A-ssess, M-easure of force, P-rotect with deadly force.
Answer: C Rationale: General Order 3 requires you to sound the alarm in case of disorder or emergency.
2. A Security Forces member is testifying in a court-martial. What is the primary rule for their testimony? A) Speak confidently even if unsure of the facts. B) Tell the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth. C) Argue with the defense attorney to establish credibility. D) Refuse to answer questions that may be self-incriminating. Answer: B Rationale: The primary rule in court testimony is to tell the truth and to review the entire case file prior to testifying. 3. What is the underlying principle behind the two categories of Rules of Engagement (ROE)? A) Offensive and Defensive tactics B) Peacetime and Wartime operations C) Self-Defense and Mission Accomplishment
D) Individual and Unit action Answer: C Rationale: ROE fall into two distinct categories: (1) Self-defense and (2) Mission accomplishment.
4. A building has a broken window and an open door. What is the correct initial Security Forces response? A) Enter immediately to search for suspects. B) Wait for the building manager to arrive and enter first. C) Notify BDOC, establish a 360-degree cordon, and wait for backup before any entry. D) Ignore the building and continue the patrol. Answer: C Rationale: In case of forced entry, take cover, inform BDOC, establish a 360-degree cordon, and use a Military Working Dog team to clear the building, waiting for backup before entering. 5. You are part of a Security Response Team (SRT) responding to an alarm. At what point do you consider using deadly force to stop a fleeing suspect?
Answer: C Rationale: You must complete Phase II training within 60 calendar days of completing Phase I.
7. You are the first to arrive at the scene of an aircraft incident off-installation. The aircraft is a PL-1 asset. What action do you take regarding security? A) Request local law enforcement to handle the scene. B) Do nothing, as it is off-installation. C) Establish an NDA (National Defense Area) to provide 24-hour security and control access. D) Wait for the Fire Department to clear the scene. Answer: C Rationale: For off-installation PL-1, 2, or 3 incidents, establish a National Defense Area (NDA) to provide security and control personnel entry and exit. 8. Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces member? A) Article 88 B) Article 92(2)
C) Article 134 D) Article 15 Answer: B Rationale: Article 92(2) (Failure to obey a lawful order) both grants and enforces the authority to issue lawful orders.
9. A military working dog (MWD) team is approaching a building to search it. From which direction should they approach? A) Upwind, so the dog can smell the suspect. B) Downwind, to prevent the suspect from detecting the dog. C) The side with the most light. D) The north side of the building. Answer: B Rationale: Military working dog teams should always approach buildings from the downwind side to avoid the dog's scent alerting potential suspects.
Rationale: Under the 4th Amendment and legal precedent, law enforcement personnel are not required to use the least intrusive force, only force that is "reasonable" in the situation.
12. What was the name of the 1997 Air Mobility Command (AMC) "first in" Security Forces concept designed to protect aircraft during high-risk layovers? A) Operation SAFESIDE B) Phoenix Raven Program C) Operation JUST CAUSE D) Defensor Fortis Initiative Answer: B Rationale: The Phoenix Raven program was adopted by AMC in 1997 as a "first in" Security Forces concept for aircraft protection. 13. Which historical event during the Vietnam War is considered the "biggest test of SP combat effectiveness" and highlighted the need for a revised base defense doctrine? A) Operation SAFESIDE. B) The establishment of the 1041st SPS.
C) The Battle of Tan Son Nhut. D) The creation of the Air Police School. Answer: C Rationale: The 1968 Tet Offensive and the defense of Tan Son Nhut Air Base was the biggest test of SP combat effectiveness, proving the need for a whole-base protective system.
14. You are part of a patrol conducting a building check. You find the building secure, with no signs of forced entry. What is your next step? A) Report the findings and continue your patrol. B) Assume the building is empty and leave. C) Attempt to gain entry to check the interior. D) Document the time and results of your check and contact the building manager. Answer: A Rationale: If the building is secure, you must still document and report to your control center. 15. The Security Forces symbol is described as: A) Shield over crossed rifles.
Answer: B Rationale: Under ICS, the first arriving member must verify the incident, establish command, announce it over the radio, and then request additional resources as needed.
17. A suspect is fleeing the scene of a burglary on foot. He is unarmed and running toward a residential area. You have a clear line of sight. Under the Use of Force policy, can you use deadly force? A) Yes – fleeing a felony allows deadly force B) Yes – to prevent escape from the crime scene C) No – deadly force is not authorized to prevent escape unless the suspect poses an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm D) No – deadly force is never authorized for property crimes Answer: C Rationale: Deadly force to prevent escape is authorized only when the suspect poses an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm to others or the public.
18. While conducting a building check, you observe that the main door is ajar. What is the proper sequence of actions? A) Enter immediately, clear the building alone, then report B) Call for backup, establish a 360-degree cordon, and wait for a MWD team if available C) Close the door and report it as secure D) Ignore the building and continue your patrol Answer: B Rationale: A forced entry requires a coordinated response: notify BDOC, set up a perimeter, and clear with appropriate resources (backup and MWD). 19. A Security Forces member is approached by a civilian who refuses to show identification at an entry control point. After repeated orders, the civilian attempts to drive through the gate. What is the appropriate force option? A) Warning shot over the vehicle B) Use of a vehicle barrier (e.g., pop-up spikes or gate arm) C) Deadly force against the driver
21. During an anti-hijacking response, the first few minutes are critical. What is the primary initial action? A) Surround the aircraft B) Attempt to communicate with the hijackers C) Establish a secure perimeter and prevent unauthorized access D) Call for negotiators immediately Answer: C Rationale: The first priority is to establish a secure perimeter to prevent the hijackers from escaping or receiving reinforcements, while controlling access for emergency responders. 22. A Security Forces member is testifying in a court-martial. The defense attorney asks a question that the member does not remember the answer to. What should the member say? A) Guess to appear confident B) "I don't recall" or "I don't remember" C) Remain silent D) Ask the prosecutor for help
Answer: B Rationale: It is appropriate to say "I don't recall" rather than guessing; honesty is essential under oath.
23. What is the effective detection range of a Military Working Dog (MWD) for a scent cone under ideal conditions? A) 50 yards B) 100 yards C) 250 yards or more D) 500 yards or more Answer: C Rationale: Under ideal atmospheric and terrain conditions, an MWD can detect a scent up to 250 yards or more. 24. You are conducting a building check at 0200 hours. You find a window broken from the inside. This indicates: A) A natural disaster
26. During a tactical response, the SRT has established a 360-degree perimeter. What is the purpose of this action? A) To prevent the suspect from escaping and to prevent others from entering the danger zone B) To allow the media to film the event safely C) To give the suspect a clear exit route D) To reduce paperwork for the incident report Answer: A Rationale: A 360-degree perimeter contains the suspect and protects responding personnel and the public from crossfire or unexpected approach. 27. You are on gate duty. A vehicle approaches with a valid CAC, but the driver appears intoxicated. The driver is a military member. What authority do you have? A) No authority; you can only check ID B) Detain the driver and contact the BDOC and Security Forces supervisor for a DUI investigation C) Issue a traffic citation
D) Let the driver pass and report later Answer: B Rationale: Security Forces have law enforcement authority; a suspected DUI on a military installation can be investigated and the individual detained. 28. A building manager reports that an exterior door lock is damaged but the door is still closed. You verify no one is inside. What is the appropriate documentation? A) No report needed B) An incident report detailing the damage and that the building was found secure with no signs of entry C) A use-of-force report D) Only a verbal notification to the BDOC Answer: B Rationale: Any damage that could indicate an attempted forced entry requires documentation and notification to the BDOC.
