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Question 1. Which of the following is the first step when installing the Informatica Data Quality (IDQ) client on a new machine? A) Configure the domain connection B) Verify Java Runtime Environment version C) Register the license key D) Create a Windows service account Answer: B Explanation: The IDQ client requires a compatible JRE; verifying the JRE version is the initial prerequisite before proceeding with the installation. Question 2. During an IDQ upgrade, which repository component must be backed up to preserve custom metadata? A) Content Installer logs B) Model Repository Service (MRS) database C) Analyst Service (AS) configuration files D) Scheduler Service schedule definitions Answer: B Explanation: The MRS database stores all custom metadata (projects, mappings, rules). Backing it up ensures no loss of custom development during upgrade. Question 3. Which utility is used to install out‑of‑the‑box (OOTB) content such as the Address Doctor population on the server side? A) idq_installer_client.exe
B) content_installer_server.exe C) idq_upgrade_tool.exe D) admin_tool.exe Answer: B Explanation: content_installer_server.exe is the server‑side installer for OOTB content, including address and identity populations. Question 4. In the Informatica domain architecture, which service is responsible for storing and retrieving model objects like mappings and rules? A) Data Integration Service (DIS) B) Model Repository Service (MRS) C) Analyst Service (AS) D) Content Management Service (CMS) Answer: B Explanation: MRS is the central repository for all model objects; DIS executes data integration jobs, while AS and CMS provide other functionalities. Question 5. Which node type typically hosts the Model Repository Service in a multi‑node Informatica domain? A) Gateway node only B) Worker node only C) Both gateway and worker nodes can host MRS D) Only a dedicated repository node can host MRS
Question 8. To import a large number of LDAP users into the IDQ domain, which tool is most efficient? A) Manual user creation in Administrator UI B) CSV import wizard C) idq_user_import.exe command‑line utility D) LDAP Synchronization Scheduler Service Answer: D Explanation: The LDAP Synchronization Scheduler Service periodically synchronizes LDAP directories, efficiently importing large user sets. Question 9. Which role must be assigned to a user to allow them to create new MRS projects? A) Analyst B) Developer C) Administrator D) Viewer Answer: B Explanation: The Developer role includes privileges for creating and modifying MRS projects, whereas Analyst can only view and run existing assets. Question 10. In IDQ, which privilege controls a user’s ability to publish a mapping to the Analyst Service?
A) Publish Mapping B) Execute Mapping C) Manage Analyst Service Folder D) Create Content Answer: C Explanation: Managing the Analyst Service folder includes publishing mappings; the privilege “Manage Analyst Service Folder” grants this capability. Question 11. When assigning permissions at the project level in MRS, which of the following is NOT a valid permission type? A) Read B) Write C) Execute D) Delete Answer: C Explanation: MRS project permissions include Read, Write, Delete, and Manage; Execute is a DIS‑level privilege, not a project‑level permission. Question 12. Which service must be started before the Analyst Service can be used for data profiling? A) Data Integration Service (DIS) B) Model Repository Service (MRS) C) Content Management Service (CMS)
Explanation: DDS hosts the Data Director application and exposes REST services for workflow execution and data quality operations. Question 15. To configure a new database connection for the Data Integration Service, which property must be defined first? A) Connection Name B) Database type (e.g., Oracle, SQL Server) C) JDBC driver class path D) User credentials Answer: C Explanation: The JDBC driver class path tells DIS how to communicate with the database; without it, the connection cannot be established. Question 16. Which of the following is a recommended practice when naming DIS connections for production environments? A) Use generic names like “DB_Conn1” B) Include environment and purpose, e.g., “PROD_CustomerDB” C) Prefix with “TMP_” to indicate temporary usage D) Use all lowercase letters only Answer: B Explanation: Including environment and purpose in the name improves clarity and aids in administration and troubleshooting.
Question 17. Which Analyst Service folder permission allows a user to view profiling results but not modify them? A) Read B) Write C) Execute D) Manage Answer: A Explanation: The “Read” permission grants view‑only access; “Write” and “Manage” allow modifications. Question 18. When configuring the Analyst Service, which log file records transformation execution details? A) analyst_service.log B) dis.log C) mrs.log D) cms.log Answer: A Explanation: analyst_service.log captures all activities related to the Analyst Service, including transformation execution details. Question 19. Which command‑line tool is used to start the Analyst Service in a headless environment? A) analyst_start.sh
Answer: C Explanation: The “Deleted Applications” view lists applications that have been removed; you can permanently purge them from here. Question 22. Which log level provides the most detailed information for troubleshooting IDQ service issues? A) ERROR B) WARN C) INFO D) DEBUG Answer: D Explanation: DEBUG logs contain granular details, stack traces, and internal state information useful for deep troubleshooting. Question 23. Which of the following is NOT a typical cause of performance degradation in batch data quality jobs? A) Insufficient JVM heap size B) Unindexed source tables C. Use of in‑memory caching for lookup tables D) Excessive parallelism beyond CPU capacity Answer: C Explanation: In‑memory caching generally improves performance; the other options can cause slowdown.
Question 24. In Data Director workflows, which tool is used to set recovery properties after a workflow failure? A) Data Director UI – Recovery Settings tab B) Administrator console – Service Properties C) Scheduler Service – Recovery Policy D) Workflow Designer – Properties panel Answer: D Explanation: The Workflow Designer’s Properties panel allows you to configure recovery options such as retry count and error handling. Question 25. Which type of connection should be created to enable the Address Validation transformation to call the Address Doctor web service? A) JDBC connection B) ODBC connection C) REST API connection D) FTP connection Answer: C Explanation: Address Doctor is accessed via REST web services; a REST API connection is required. Question 26. Which component of IDQ is responsible for managing identity matching populations?
D) maxConcurrentProfiles Answer: A Explanation: The maxProfilingThreads property controls how many profiling sessions can run simultaneously. Question 29. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Model Repository Service audit logs? A) Track data movement between source and target B) Record changes to model objects such as mappings and rules C) Monitor CPU and memory usage of the service D) Store execution statistics for batch jobs Answer: B Explanation: MRS audit logs capture creation, modification, and deletion events for model objects, providing a change history. Question 30. Which of these actions requires the “Manage Scheduler Service” privilege? A) Creating a new database connection B) Defining a new workflow schedule C) Publishing a mapping to the Analyst Service D) Importing LDAP users Answer: B
Explanation: Managing schedules is a Scheduler Service function; the appropriate privilege is “Manage Scheduler Service”. Question 31. In a high‑availability domain, which node type is typically configured as a failover for the Model Repository Service? A) Additional gateway node B) Dedicated backup worker node C) Load‑balanced worker node D) Secondary domain node in a different data center Answer: D Explanation: A secondary domain node in a separate data center provides true HA for MRS, allowing failover without service interruption. Question 32. Which of the following is a required step after installing a new content population on the CMS? A) Restart the Data Integration Service B) Refresh the content cache in the Administrator console C) Re‑register the license key D) Re‑install the Analyst Service Answer: B Explanation: After adding new content, the CMS cache must be refreshed so that services can locate the new population files.
B) dis.log C) cms.log D) scheduler.log Answer: B Explanation: DIS handles data movement and logs connection attempts and failures in dis.log. Question 36. Which of the following statements about the “Content Installer Server” utility is FALSE? A) It can install both address and identity populations. B) It must be run on the same node where the CMS is installed. C) It can be used to uninstall previously installed content. D) It automatically restarts all services after installation. Answer: D Explanation: The utility does not automatically restart services; administrators must manually restart affected services if needed. Question 37. Which of the following is the correct order of steps to create a new IDQ project in the Model Repository? A) Create folder → Assign permissions → Create project → Add mappings B) Assign permissions → Create folder → Create project → Add mappings C) Create project → Create folder → Assign permissions → Add mappings D) Create folder → Create project → Assign permissions → Add mappings
Answer: D Explanation: A folder must exist first, then the project is created inside it, followed by permission assignment and finally adding mappings. Question 38. Which privilege is required for a user to delete a mapping from a project? A) Delete Mapping B) Write Project C) Manage Project D) Administrator Answer: A Explanation: “Delete Mapping” specifically allows removal of mappings; other privileges may allow editing but not deletion. Question 39. When configuring the Data Integration Service for high‑throughput batch processing, which setting should be increased? A) Number of worker threads per node B) Maximum log file size C) License key expiration warning period D) Analyst Service profiling timeout Answer: A Explanation: Increasing worker threads allows DIS to process more parallel tasks, improving throughput for batch jobs.
A) Monitor → Jobs B) Manage → Services → DIS C) Monitor → Execution D) Manage → Monitoring → DIS Jobs Answer: A Explanation: The “Monitor → Jobs” tab displays all active and completed DIS jobs. Question 43. Which of the following is a recommended practice for securing LDAP connections in IDQ? A) Use plain text bind passwords B) Disable SSL/TLS for faster authentication C) Store LDAP bind credentials in encrypted format D) Allow anonymous bind for all users Answer: C Explanation: Encrypting LDAP bind credentials protects them from exposure; plain text or anonymous binds are insecure. Question 44. Which of the following statements about the “Analyst Service command line” (analyst_cli) is TRUE? A) It can only be used on Windows platforms. B) It allows execution of profiling jobs without the UI. C) It replaces the need for the Analyst Service altogether.
D) It does not support passing connection parameters. Answer: B Explanation: analyst_cli enables headless execution of profiling and other Analyst Service functions, useful for automation. Question 45. Which property controls the retention period for Analyst Service logs? A) logRetentionDays b) analystLogAge C) logMaxSize D) analystLogRetention Answer: A Explanation: logRetentionDays defines how many days logs are kept before automatic deletion. Question 46. When adding a new worker node to a domain, which service must be installed first on the node? A) Model Repository Service B) Data Integration Service C) Analyst Service D) Content Management Service Answer: B
