SFPC Practice Test: Information Security and Personnel Security, Exams of Computer Science

A practice test for the sfpc (security fundamentals professional certification), focusing on key areas such as information security, physical security, and personnel security. It includes multiple-choice questions with correct answers marked, covering topics like classification determinations, antiterrorism measures, and security clearance eligibility. This test is designed to assess understanding of security program areas and related policies, offering valuable preparation for certification exams. It also covers topics like handling foreign government information (fgi) and controlled unclassified information (cui).

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 12/02/2025

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Which of the following security program areas would you find
practitioners who train and/
or advise Original Classification Authorities in the application of
the process for making
classification determinations?
A. Information Security
B. Physical Security
C. Personnel Security
D. Industrial Security
- correct answer
✅A. Information Security
Which of the following security program areas would you find
practitioners working with a
facility's Antiterrorism Officer to deploy defensive measures
designed to reduce the facility's
vulnerability from terrorist attacks?
A. Information Security
B. Physical Security
C. Personnel Security
D. Industrial Security
- correct answer
✅B. Physical Security
Which of the following security programs areas would you find
practitioners involved with
processes that monitor employees for new information that could
affect their security clearance
eligibility status?
A. Foreign Disclosure
B. Information Security
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Which of the following security program areas would you find practitioners who train and/ or advise Original Classification Authorities in the application of the process for making classification determinations? A. Information Security B. Physical Security C. Personnel Security D. Industrial Security - correct answer ✅A. Information Security Which of the following security program areas would you find practitioners working with a facility's Antiterrorism Officer to deploy defensive measures designed to reduce the facility's vulnerability from terrorist attacks? A. Information Security B. Physical Security C. Personnel Security D. Industrial Security - correct answer ✅B. Physical Security Which of the following security programs areas would you find practitioners involved with processes that monitor employees for new information that could affect their security clearance eligibility status? A. Foreign Disclosure B. Information Security

C. International Security D. Operations Security E. Personnel Security F. Physical Security G. Research and Technology Protection H. Information Assurance - correct answer ✅E. Personnel Security Two security professionals - Paul and Ashley - are discussing security program areas. Paul says that Information Security practitioners train and/or advise Original Classification Authorities in the application of the process for making classification determinations. Ashley says that Physical Security practitioners work with a facility's Antiterrorism Officer to deploy defensive measures designed to reduce the facility's vulnerability from terrorist attacks. Who is correct? A. Paul is correct B. Ashley is correct C. Paul and Ashley are both correct D. Paul and Ashley are both incorrect - correct answer ✅C. Paul and Ashley are both correct Two security professionals - Paul and Ashley - are discussing security program areas.

c. Those holding security clearances issued by the U.S. government cannot access U.S. documents containing FGI without written consent from the originating foreign government. d. The receiving DoD Components must maintain re - correct answer ✅B Which of the following is a requirement for access to North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) information? a. Personnel has been subject of a Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI), including a National Agency Check (NAC) on the spouse and all members of the individual's immediate family of 18 years of age or over who are United States citizens other than by birth or who are resident aliens. b. Personnel has been subject of a favorably adjudicated background investigation (BI) (10-year scope), Tier 5, current within five years prior to the assignment, and completed a NATO brief. c. Personnel has been subject of a favorably adjudicated BI (10- year scope), Defense National Agency Check with Inquiries (DNACI)/ National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI) or NACI Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC), current within five years prior to the assignment. d. Personnel requiring access to NATO COSMIC (Top Secret) or - correct answer ✅B According to Executive Order 13556, which of the following is considered a type of controlled unclassified information (CUI)? a. Communications Security (COMSEC) Information b. Declassified Information c. Law Enforcement Sensitive (LES) Information

d. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Information - correct answer ✅C. Law Enforcement Sensitive Information What is the purpose of marking classified materials? a. To alert holders to the presence of classified information, how to properly protect it, and for how long. b. To deter foreign adversaries from committing actions aimed at accessing such information. c. To provide guidance for interpretation and analysis of classified information. d. To alert holders to the methods used to collect classified information. - correct answer ✅A What is included in the markings of classified information? a. Derivative classifier as the authority to make declassification determinations. b. Agencies and authorities that have previously accessed the classified information. c. Document holder as the sole authority to make transfer and dissemination determinations. d. Sources and reasons for the classification. - correct answer ✅C What is the purpose of the Controlled Access Program Coordination (CAPCO) register? a. To identify the categories, types, and levels of Special Access Programs (SAPs.)

Which of the following examples describes a security violation rather than a security infraction? a. On a busy day, Karen printed classified documents on the printer in her open storage/secure room. She forgot about the documents and they remained on the printer for about an hour before she retrieved them. b. Karen was late for a meeting in a different area of her building. She put a classified document in a folder she believed was marked for carrying classified materials. When handing out the materials, Karen realized that the folder was not marked for carrying classified materials, she had put the documents in the wrong folder. c. At the end of the day, Karen was leaving and taking with her unclassified documents she would review at home. When she began to review those documents that night, she realized that classified materials had slipped in between the unclassified materials. d. Karen was working a mission rela - correct answer ✅C The inability to deny you are the sender of an email would be an indication of a lapse in:** a. Non-Repudiation b. Confidentiality c. Integrity d. Availability - correct answer ✅A. Non-repudiation Unauthorized disclosure and loss of privacy is a lapse in:** a. Confidentiality b. Integrity

c. Availability d. Authentication - correct answer ✅A Which of the following is the first action done to downgrade, declassify or remove classification markings? a. Through the appropriate chain of command, contact the original classification authority (OCA) to confirm that information does not have an extended classification period. b. Change the classification authority block to indicate "Declassify ON:" to show the new declassification instructions. c. Take all classification markings off the document and redistribute. d. Request a waiver from the Information Security Oversight. Office (ISOO) to remove the declassification markings. - correct answer ✅A All of the following are requirements to perform classified activities from non-traditional locations (e.g., the employees home), EXCEPT: a. The employee must be trained to operate classified information systems. b. The employee must be trained on protection and storage of classified information and Communications Security (COMSEC) materials. c. The employee must receive written approval for use of classified information and equipment at home. d. The employee must have an office space that meets requirements comparable to the Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility (SCIF). - correct answer ✅B

means necessary, including violence. Although the subject terminated his membership with the organization upon learning he would be investigated for a clearance for his new position, he still maintains social contact with several members of the anarchist organization. Based on this information, which of the following adjudicative guidelines is most appropriate for an adjudicator to apply to the case? a. Psychological Conditions b. Foreign Preference c. Allegiance to the United States d. Criminal Activity - correct answer ✅C

  1. Which of the following is considered an element of the Personnel Security Program (PSP)? a. Risk Assessment and Analysis b. Implementation c. Classification d. Continuous Evaluation - correct answer ✅D Limited access to classified information for specific programs may be approved for non-U.S. citizens only under which of the following conditions? a. The subject is eligible to access material marked by a foreign government that is equivalent to a U.S. Top Secret classification marking. b. The subject will only have one-time access to specific material, after which the material will be appropriately destroyed or returned to the originating U.S. agency

c. The subject will only have access to classified U.S. documents containing Foreign Government Information (FGI) originating from the foreign country of which the subject is a citizen. d. The prior 10 years of the subject's life can be appropriately investigated. - correct answer ✅D Which of the following is the investigative requirement for access to Single Integrated Operational Plan-Extremely Sensitive Information (SIOP- ESI)? a. Individual has a valid favorably adjudicated Tier 5 or Single Scope Background (SSBI) Investigation. b. Individual has a valid favorable adjudicated Tier 3 or National Agency Check with Local Agency Check (NACLC) investigation. c. Individual has a valid favorably adjudicated Tier 3 or Access National Agency Check with Written Inquiries and Credit Check (ANACI) investigation. d. Individual has a valid favorably adjudicated Tier. - correct answer ✅A Which of the following is not qualifying criteria for personnel assigned to nuclear weapons personnel reliability assurance positions? a. Individual must be a U.S. Citizen b. Individual has a security clearance eligibility in accordance with the position c. Individual is subject to a periodic reinvestigation every three years d. Individual must be continuous evaluated - correct answer ✅C

a. Information holders must use the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET) to transmit such information. b. Such information may be store in an open storage area, provided the room is equipped with an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) with the personnel responding to an alarm within 15 minutes of the alarm annunciation. c. Such information must be stored in a General Services Administration (GSA)-approved security container equipped with a lock meeting FF-L-2740 standards. d. Organizational wireless connections holding such information must be encrypted, and those accessing such information must use encrypted wireless connections where available when traveling. - correct answer ✅D Copies of personnel security investigative reports must be destroyed by DoD recipient organizations, within how many days following completion of the necessary personnel security determination? a. 30 days b. 45 days c. 60 days d. 90 days - correct answer ✅D Which of the following limitations is true regarding Limited Access Authorization (LAA) to non-U.S. citizens? a. LAAs shall only be granted access at the Secret and Confidential levels. b. A favorably completed and adjudicated Tier 3 or National Agency Check with Local Agency Check (NACLC). investigation within the last five years is required.

c. An LAA is the same as a security clearance eligibility. d. Access to classified information Is not limited to a specific program or project. - correct answer ✅A

  1. Which of the following is not considered when making a security clearance eligibility determination? a. Education Level b. Alcohol consumption c. Financial considerations d. Psychological Conditions - correct answer ✅A A position designated as a DoD noncritical-sensitive civilian position may fall under any of the following criteria, EXCEPT: a. A position not requiring eligibility for access to classified information, but having the potential to cause significant or serious damage to the national security. b. A position requiring eligibility for access to Top Secret information. c. A position requiring eligibility for access to confidential information. d. A position requiring eligibility for access to secret information. - correct answer ✅B What information must a statement of reasons (SOR) include? a. SOR must state why an unfavorable national security eligibility determination is being proposed. b. SOR must explain each security concern and state the specific facts that trigger each security concern.

a. Paul is correct b. Ashley is correct c. Paul and Ashley are both correct d. Paul and Ashley are both incorrect - correct answer ✅C Which of the following is not a distinct phase of the Intrusion Detection System? a. Detection b. Control c. Assessment d. Response - correct answer ✅B Which of the following would be considered a public safety crime? a. Theft of ammunition shipment for the purpose of criminal or gang related activity. b. Theft of sensitive, proprietary information relating to US aerospace and defense technologies. c. Deliberate destruction of DoD assets or interruption of normal operations. d. Theft of an item and use of it outside of its intended purpose or without permission. - correct answer ✅A Which of the following best describes the goal of the Physical Security Program? a. To ensure that industry safeguards the classified information in their possession, while performing work on contracts, bids, or research and development efforts on behalf of the government.

b. To protect assets against compromise resulting from activities such as espionage, sabotage, terrorism, damage or loss, and criminal. c. To ensure that only loyal, trustworthy, and reliable individuals may access classified information or perform sensitive duties. d. To create uniform policies and procedures for defense acquisition by all executive agencies. - correct answer ✅B Preventing unauthorized access to information and equipment, safeguarding DoD assets against espionage and criminal activity, and providing the means to counter threats when preventative measures are ignored, best characterize the primary functions of which of the following programs or processes? a. Physical Security Program b. Operations Security (OPSEC) process c. Security incident response process d. Personnel Security Program - correct answer ✅A The process of integrating active and passive complementary physical security measures to ensure the protection of DoD assets is known as which of the following concepts? a. Area security b. Threat-vulnerability assessment c. Security-in-depth d. Point security - correct answer ✅C The stealing of sensitive, proprietary information related to U.S. aerospace and defense technologies with the intent to provide

d. The main content of the invitation to send to the participants. - correct answer ✅C Two security professionals - Paul and Ashley

  • are discussing the security procedures for visits and meetings. Paul says visits must serve a specific U.S. Government purpose. Ashley says DoD Components should, as a minimum, establish procedures that include verification of the identity, personnel security clearance, access (if appropriate), and need-to-know for all visitors. Who is correct? a. Paul is correct b. Ashley is correct c. Paul and Ashley are both correct d. Paul and Ashley are both incorrect - correct answer ✅A Executive Order 12829, signed in January 1993, mandated that which of the following entities be responsible for implementing and monitoring the National industrial Security Program (NISP)? a. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) b. Secretary of Defense c. National Security Council (NSC) d. Director, Defense Security Services (DSS) - correct answer ✅A What is the role of the government contracting activity (GCA), or cleared prime contractor, when a contractor that does not have a Facility Clearance (FCL) wants to bid on a Request for Proposal (RFP) that requires access to classified information? a. The GCA must issue a formal letter rejecting the contractor's bid since the contractor does not have the requisite FCL.

b. The contractor must submit a sponsorship request to DSS, who will decide whether to allow the contractor to bid on the contract. c. The GCA must sponsor the contractor for a facility security clearance by submitting a sponsorship request to DSS, which initiates the facility clearance process. d. The GCA must ensure that the all owners and senior management of the uncleared contractor are U.S. citizens and are eligible to be processed for a personnel security clearance. - correct answer ✅C What is the purpose of the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR)? a. To codify and publish uniform policies and procedures for acquisition by all executive agencies. b. To manage DoD funds and prioritize the development of vital research and technology. c. To provide small businesses and minority owned companies an opportunity to compete in the government acquisition process. d. To promote uniform standards and best practices of technology acquisition across U.S. industry. - correct answer ✅A What is the role of the security professional during the "Award Contract" step of the contracting process? a. To ensure the appropriate classification level for the bid, and to define unique security requirements associated with the product. b. To interface with the Cognizant Security Organization (CSO) to ensure oversight is performed and review results of and previous assessments on behalf of component. c. To ensure that the contractor follows proper safeguarding and disposition guidance.