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Software Practice Exam
Question 1. Which SDLC model emphasizes a linear and sequential flow where each phase must be completed before the next begins? A) Iterative B) Waterfall C) Spiral D) Incremental Answer: B Explanation: The Waterfall model is a linear approach where phases such as requirements, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance are performed in order without overlap. Question 2. In Agile Scrum, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product and managing the Product Backlog? A) Scrum Master B) Development Team C) Product Owner D) Stakeholder Answer: C Explanation: The Product Owner owns the Product Backlog, prioritizes items, and ensures the team works on the most valuable features. Question 3. Which design principle states that a class should have only one reason to change? A) Open/Closed Principle B) Liskov Substitution Principle C) Single Responsibility Principle D) Interface Segregation Principle Answer: C
Software Practice Exam
Explanation: The Single Responsibility Principle (SRP) dictates that a class should encapsulate only one responsibility, reducing the impact of changes. Question 4. Which HTTP method is idempotent and typically used to update a resource partially? A) POST B) GET C) PATCH D) DELETE Answer: C Explanation: PATCH applies partial modifications and is idempotent when the same request yields the same result each time. Question 5. In a relational database, which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies? A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) BCNF Answer: C Explanation: Third Normal Form (3NF) removes transitive dependencies, ensuring that non‑key attributes depend only on the primary key. Question 6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a microservices architecture? A) Single deployable unit B) Tight coupling between components C) Independent deployment of services
Software Practice Exam
B) git checkout - b new‑branch C) git merge new‑branch D) git pull new‑branch Answer: B Explanation: git checkout - b <branch> creates and checks out the new branch. Question 10. Which testing technique involves dividing input data into valid and invalid partitions? A) Boundary Value Analysis B) Equivalence Partitioning C) Decision Table Testing D) State Transition Testing Answer: B Explanation: Equivalence Partitioning groups inputs that are expected to be processed similarly, reducing test cases. Question 11. Which of the following is a non‑functional testing type that measures system behavior under heavy load? A) Unit Testing B) Functional Testing C) Load Testing D) Regression Testing Answer: C Explanation: Load testing evaluates performance when the system is subjected to expected usage volumes.
Software Practice Exam
Question 12. In object‑oriented programming, which concept allows a subclass to provide a specific implementation of a method defined in its superclass? A) Encapsulation B) Inheritance C) Polymorphism D) Abstraction Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphism enables method overriding, allowing subclasses to customize behavior. Question 13. Which architectural pattern separates an application into Model, View, and Controller components? A) Layered Architecture B) Client‑Server C) MVC D) Event‑Driven Answer: C Explanation: MVC divides responsibilities: Model manages data, View handles UI, Controller processes input. Question 14. Which CI/CD tool is primarily used for container orchestration rather than pipeline automation? A) Jenkins B) GitLab CI C) Travis CI D) Kubernetes Answer: D
Software Practice Exam
Explanation: SELECT DISTINCT eliminates duplicate rows. Question 18. Which NoSQL database type stores data as key‑value pairs and is optimal for caching? A) Document Store B) Column‑Family C) Graph Database D) Key‑Value Store Answer: D Explanation: Key‑Value stores (e.g., Redis) are simple and fast for cache scenarios. Question 19. In the context of software metrics, what does Cyclomatic Complexity measure? A) Number of lines of code B) Number of classes C) Number of independent paths through code D) Execution time of a program Answer: C Explanation: Cyclomatic Complexity quantifies the number of linearly independent paths, indicating testability. Question 20. Which of the following OWASP Top 10 risks involves executing malicious code through unsanitized input? A) Broken Authentication B) Security Misconfiguration C) Injection
Software Practice Exam
D) Sensitive Data Exposure Answer: C Explanation: Injection flaws (e.g., SQL injection) occur when untrusted data is sent to an interpreter. Question 21. Which design pattern ensures that a class has only one instance and provides a global point of access to it? A) Factory B) Observer C) Singleton D) Builder Answer: C Explanation: The Singleton pattern restricts instantiation to a single object. Question 22. In Docker, which file defines the steps to build an image? A) docker-compose.yml B) Dockerfile C) Docker.cfg D) Docker.json Answer: B Explanation: A Dockerfile contains instructions for building Docker images. Question 23. What does the “S” in SOLID stand for? A) Single Responsibility B) Simple Interface C) Secure Coding
Software Practice Exam
D) Selection Sort Answer: B Explanation: Merge Sort consistently runs in O(n log n) and preserves the order of equal elements. Question 27. In the context of authentication, what does OAuth 2.0 primarily provide? A) Password hashing algorithm B) Delegated authorization C) Symmetric encryption D) Role‑Based Access Control Answer: B Explanation: OAuth 2.0 enables third‑party applications to obtain limited access to HTTP services. Question 28. Which testing level validates that the integrated components work together as intended? A) Unit Testing B) Integration Testing C) System Testing D) Acceptance Testing Answer: B Explanation: Integration testing checks interactions between modules. Question 29. Which of the following is a characteristic of a monolithic architecture? A) Independent scaling of services B) Multiple deployment units
Software Practice Exam
C) Single executable or deployment artifact D) Decentralized data storage per service Answer: C Explanation: Monolithic apps are built and deployed as a single unit. Question 30. In a binary tree, what is the maximum number of nodes at depth d? A) d B) 2^d C) 2^(d‑1) D) d^ Answer: B Explanation: At depth d (root at depth 0), a full binary tree can have 2^d nodes. Question 31. Which of the following best describes “Infrastructure as Code” (IaC)? A) Manual server provisioning B) Writing code that describes hardware specifications only C) Managing and provisioning infrastructure through machine‑readable definition files D) Using only virtual machines for deployment Answer: C Explanation: IaC treats infrastructure configuration as code, enabling automation and version control. Question 32. Which Agile ceremony is time‑boxed to 15 minutes and occurs daily? A) Sprint Review B) Sprint Planning
Software Practice Exam
C) The implied cost of additional rework caused by choosing an easy solution now instead of a better approach later D) The amount of code written per sprint Answer: C Explanation: Technical debt represents future work needed to fix shortcuts taken during development. Question 36. Which of the following is a non‑blocking I/O model commonly used in Node.js? A) Synchronous I/O B) Blocking I/O C) Event‑driven I/O D) Polling I/O Answer: C Explanation: Node.js uses an event‑driven, non‑blocking I/O model to handle many concurrent connections. Question 37. In SQL, which clause is used to filter groups created by GROUP BY? A) WHERE B) HAVING C) ORDER BY D) LIMIT Answer: B Explanation: HAVING applies conditions to aggregated groups. Question 38. Which of the following is a key advantage of using a Service‑Oriented Architecture (SOA)?
Software Practice Exam
A) Tight coupling of services B) Reusability of services across applications C. Single point of failure for all services D. Lack of standard communication protocols Answer: B Explanation: SOA encourages loosely coupled, reusable services that can be combined in various ways. Question 39. Which of the following best describes “blue‑green deployment”? A) Deploying two identical environments and switching traffic from one to the other after validation B) Deploying code only during nighttime C. Using two programming languages in the same project D. Deploying to a single environment with no fallback Answer: A Explanation: Blue‑green deployment maintains two production‑identical environments to enable zero‑downtime releases. Question 40. Which of the following data structures is most appropriate for implementing a LIFO (last‑in, first‑out) collection? A) Queue B) Stack C) Deque D) Linked List Answer: B Explanation: A stack follows LIFO semantics.
Software Practice Exam
Explanation: The sprint backlog contains the work items the team commits to delivering in the current sprint. Question 44. Which algorithmic strategy divides a problem into sub‑problems, solves each recursively, and combines their solutions? A) Greedy B) Dynamic Programming C) Divide and Conquer D) Brute Force Answer: C Explanation: Divide and Conquer splits problems, solves sub‑problems, and merges results (e.g., Merge Sort). Question 45. Which of the following is a common cause of “deadlock” in concurrent programming? A. Single‑threaded execution B. Proper lock ordering C. Circular wait for resources D. Use of immutable objects Answer: C Explanation: Deadlock occurs when each thread holds a lock and waits for another lock held by a different thread, forming a circular wait. Question 46. In a relational database, what does the term “foreign key” enforce? A) Uniqueness of a column within a table B. Automatic indexing of columns C) Referential integrity between tables
Software Practice Exam
D. Encryption of data at rest Answer: C Explanation: A foreign key ensures that a value matches a primary key in another table, maintaining referential integrity. Question 47. Which of the following is a principle of DevOps culture? A. Siloed teams B. Manual deployments only C. Continuous feedback and improvement D. Fixed release dates only Answer: C Explanation: DevOps emphasizes collaboration, automation, measurement, and sharing (continuous feedback). Question 48. Which of the following best describes “stateless” services in a microservices architecture? A. Services that store session data locally B. Services that do not retain client context between requests C. Services that require a dedicated database per instance D. Services that depend on global variables Answer: B Explanation: Stateless services treat each request independently, improving scalability. Question 49. In Scrum, what is the maximum recommended length of a sprint for most teams? A) 1 week
Software Practice Exam
A) Builder B) Factory Method C) Observer D. Prototype Answer: B Explanation: The Factory Method encapsulates object creation, allowing subclasses to decide which class to instantiate. Question 53. In networking, which layer of the OSI model is responsible for end‑to‑end delivery and reliability? A. Physical B. Data Link C. Transport D. Network Answer: C Explanation: The Transport layer (e.g., TCP) provides reliable, ordered delivery of data. Question 54. Which of the following best defines “idempotent” in the context of HTTP methods? A) The method can be called only once B) Multiple identical requests have the same effect as a single request C) The method always returns a 500 error after the first call D. The method modifies server state each time it is called Answer: B Explanation: Idempotent methods (GET, PUT, DELETE, HEAD, OPTIONS) produce the same result regardless of repeated identical calls.
Software Practice Exam
Question 55. Which of the following is a typical sign of a memory leak in a Java application? A. Immediate OutOfMemoryError after start B. Gradual increase in heap usage over time without corresponding garbage collection C. Decrease in CPU usage over time D. Constant heap size throughout execution Answer: B Explanation: A memory leak causes the heap to grow as objects are retained unintentionally, eventually leading to OOM. Question 56. Which of the following best describes “pair programming”? A. Two developers work on separate modules simultaneously B. One developer writes code while another reviews it in real time C. Developers alternate writing code every other day D. Two developers merge their codebases weekly Answer: B Explanation: Pair programming pairs a driver (writes code) and a navigator (reviews) concurrently. Question 57. In the context of APIs, what does “versioning” primarily address? A. Changing the underlying database schema B. Maintaining backward compatibility for clients when the API evolves C. Improving server hardware performance D. Encrypting API traffic Answer: B
