Download SMQT TEST ACTUAL TEST 2026 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
SMQT TEST ACTUAL TEST 2026 QUESTIONS
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
◉ Significant weight loss in 1 month? Answer: 5% weight loss ◉ Severe weight loss in 1 month? Answer: greater than 5% weight loss ◉ Significant weight loss in 3 months? Answer: 7.5% weight loss ◉ Severe weight loss is 3 months? Answer: greater than 7.5% weight loss ◉ Significant weight loss in 6 months? Answer: 10% weight loss ◉ What are signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity? Answer: anorexia, nausea ,vomiting, visual changes, cardia arrhythmia, low heart rate ◉ When must a Gradual Dose reduction (GDR) occur? Answer: Within the first year in which a resident is admitted or med is prescribed the facility must attempt a GDR in two separate quarters
(with at least one month in between the attempts) unless clinically contraindicated. ◉ Severe weight loss in 6 months Answer: greater than 10% weight loss ◉ What drugs are review for unnecessary medications? Answer: Insulin, anticoagulant, antipsychotics with dementia ◉ When finalizing the sample, what do you do if other residents are marked FI for the complaint allegation care area? Answer: sample 3 residents for the care area. ◉ What residents are system selected? Answer: any offsite selected with at least one care area marked FI, any resident a surveyor marked as include in sample, any identified abuse concern from IP or history of abuse citation or allegation since last survey. ◉ What areas are reviewed for non-interviewable residents? Answer: Pressure ulcers, dialysis, infections, nutrition, falls in last 120 days, ADL decline, low risk B&B, unplanned hospitalization, elopement, change of condition in last 120 days.
◉ What is the survey process based on? Answer: Person centered care, resident centered outcomes, QOC and QOL. ◉ What are the 8 principles of Documentation? Answer: 1. Entity Compliance or Noncompliance
- Using plain language.
- Components of a Deficiency statement
- Relevance of Onsite correction of findings
- Interpretive guidelines
- Citation of State or local code violations
- Cross-referencing
- Condition of Participation Deficiencies ◉ What are the components of a deficiency statement? Answer: 1. regulatory reference
- deficient practice statement 3.relevance facts and findings ◉ What are CMS core values? Answer: 1.Public service 2.Integrity 3.Accountablity
4.Excellance 5.Respect ◉ What are the LTC Survey Core skills? Answer: 1. Resident- centered, outcome oriented information gathering
- Critical thinking
- Teamwork ◉ What is the definition of Practicable Answer: capable regardless of circumstances or resources available to support an individual, innate ability ◉ What is iatrogenesis? Answer: a problem that is caused by a treatment ◉ When should you export the survey shell from ACO? Answer: Export the shell as close to the survey as possible but no more than 5 business days before. ◉ When should you contact the RAI coordinator? Answer: If the number of residents is unreasonable after exporting the survey shell ◉ Which residents are included in the survey shell? Answer: 1. Offsite selected who make up 70% of the sample
- Ventilator
- TBP ◉ What are the types of interview status? Answer: 1. intervieable 2.Noninterviewable 3.Refused
- Unavailable
- Out of facility. ◉ What should you do if a resident halts the interview midway? Answer: Attempt to complete later, if you can't, leave the rest blank, complete RO/RR then mark the resident as complete. ◉ What is CFR Part 489.301? Answer: Jeopardy ◉ What is the definition of Jeopardy? Answer: A providers noncompliance has caused, or is likely to cause, serious injury, harm, impairment or death. ◉ What do you do if the team has different information then the systemvpopulated information? Answer: Enter it under notes field
◉ What system provided information should be discussed at the end of Day 1 meeting? Answer: 1. were any offsite selected residents d/c?
- Was each newly admitted resident listed on the matrix screened by a team member?
- Are there any harm, SQC, IJ or other concerns to discuss? ◉ What should you use when selecting the sample size? Answer: Use the sample size grid, and system calculated minimum. ◉ Can the samlpe size exceed the sample size grid? Answer: Yes ◉ How many residents does the system select for unnecessary medication review? Answer: 5 ◉ What should you ask for if Abuse is being investigated based on a history of abuse as noted on offsite prep screen? Answer: Ask facility for all allegations of abuse since the last survey. ◉ What should you consider when adding residents when the sample size is not met? Answer: Residents with the most concerns Residents with concerns R/T QOL and RR Residents selected for unnecessary med review prior survey and complaint results
(One surveyor is assigned primary responsibility for completion of each task) ◉ Which facility tasks are triggered tasks? Answer: Environment, Personal Funds, Resident Assessment ◉ 483.24 Answer: Quality of Life- pertains to all care and services provided. Facilities must provide necessary care and services to attain or maintain highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well being. ◉ 483.25 Answer: Quality of Care-facility must ensure residents receive care and treatment in accordance with professional standards of practice, person centered care and resident choice ◉ What is included on a baseline care plan? Answer: Initial goals based on admission orders MD orders and dietary orders Therapy and social Services PASARR ◉ What is a PASARR Answer: Pre-Admission Screening and Resident review - screening to ensure that the facility coordinates with the appropriate, State designated authority, to ensure that individuals with a mental disorder, intellectual disability or a related condition
receive care and services in the most integrated setting appropriate to their needs. ◉ What pathway is used to investigate QOC concerns that have no pathway? Answer: General CE pathway ◉ When should you use "Investigation Notes"? Answer: used for information specific to the care area being reviewed ◉ When should you use "Resident Notes" Answer: when you have information about the resident you would like to have for all care areas ◉ What must you do prior to observing resident care? Answer: Have consent from the resident or resident rep., and facility nurse staff must be available during the observation. ◉ How should you determine who to interview? Answer: Use the critical element pathway ◉ What do you do if an interviewee says you cannot use the information they reveal? Answer: You cannot use the revelation but you can investigate the issue with other residents
Assigned surveyor reviews IPCP, AB Stewardship, and the influenza/pneumococcal vaccination (5 residents), sample of 3 staff including at least 1 that was COVID 19 positive, and 3 residents for TBP(1 covid + or suspected) as well as screening, testing and reporting of COVID 19 ◉ What is reviewed for compliance with the Antibiotic Stewardship program? Answer: 1. AB use protocol on prescribing
- Protocols to determine if AB is indicated
- A process for review of AB use by prescribers
- Protocols to ensure resident are prescribed the appropriate AB
- A system for feedback reports ◉ What is avoidable decline? Answer: The facility failed to do 1 or more of the following;
- evaluate resident clinical condition and risk factors
- develop and implement interventions consistent with resident needs, goals, and standards of practice
- Monitor and evaluate impact of interventions 4revise interventions as appropriate ◉ What are the factors in determining Noncompliance Answer: 1. specific action or lack of action relative to requirement
- Practice the facility implemented or failed to implement
- what the facility did or di not do to cause the noncompliance
- The actual or potential outcome that resulted from the noncompliance. ◉ What factors should you consider in determining severity when harm has occured? Answer: Is the harm at the level of serious injury, impairment or death? did the resident experience a negative psychosocial outcome? how did the facility practice in question cause, contribute, or perpetuate the harm? ◉ What factors should you consider in determining severity when the is no actual harm? Answer: how likely is it that a resident could suffer harm, impairment, death or compromise/deterioration? Does the deficient practice require immediate correction? Could the noncompliance have an impact on many residents? Use the psychosocial outcome grid and the reasonable person concept ◉ What is the psychosocial outcome grid? Answer: guide designed to identify each residents psychosocial response to noncompliance as the basis for determining psychosocial severity of a deficiency
A pattern of, or widespread def. at severity level 3 A widespread deficiency a severity level 2 (F,H,I,J,K, or L) ◉ What does the Beneficiary Protection Notice Review verify? Answer: verify notification to resident when Med A ends- SNF-ABN and NOMNC verify the facility billed medicare within the required time frame after the resident requested a demand bill verify that the facility did not bill the resident while a decision was pending. ◉ What is 483.60 Answer: Kitchen-store, prep, distribute food under sanitary conditions to prevent food-born illness. F ◉ What is the danger zone? Answer: above 41degress or below 135 degrees ◉ What are the 3 types of contamination Answer: Biological, chemical, physical ◉ What is Critical Control Point (CCP) Answer: a specific point, procedure, or a step in food preparation and serving at which
control can be exercised to reduce, eliminate, or prevent the possibility of a food safety hazard. Cooking ,cooling, holding, reheating ◉ What foods are PHF/TCS Answer: ground beef, poultry, fish, cut melon, unpasteurized eggs, cottage cheese ◉ How should PHF foods be cooled? Answer: Cool from 135 degrees to 70 degrees in 2 hours then from 70 degrees to 41 degrees or lower within 6 hours. ◉ What temperature should hot foods be held at? Answer: 135 degrees or higher ◉ What temperature should cold foods be held at? Answer: 41 degrees or lower ◉ What temperature should food be re-heated to? Answer: 165 degrees for 15 seconds within 2 hours ◉ Should ABHS be used in food Service? Answer: No ◉ What is the purpose of medication administration observation? Answer: Verify that the facility meets the requirements of error rate
◉ F 921 Answer: Safe, functional, sanitary environment-if triggered, no need to complete entire pathway-on complete applicable section ◉ Sections of Environmental Pathway? Answer: accommodation of need, call system, sound, temp, lighting, clean equipment in good repair, water temp, bed/bath linens clean-in good repair, pest control, ventilation, handrails, other concerns ◉ What is the square footage of a single room? Answer: 100 square feet ◉ What is the square footage of a multiple room? Answer: 80 square feet per resident ◉ What is a comfortable temperature? Answer: 71-81 degrees ◉ How should privacy curtains be hung? Answer: Must be hung from the ceiling and extend around the bed to provide total visual privacy. ◉ What is the window requirement for residents rooms? Answer: Must have an outside window or outside door in every sleeping room, sill height must not exceed 36 inches above the floor.
◉ What is the requirement for bathroom facilities? Answer: each resident room must have it's own bathroom equipped with a commode and sink (built after 2016) ◉ How often use a resident receive a financial statement? Answer: quarterly and upon request ◉ What amount of money must be kept in an interest bearing account? Answer: $ ◉ When must a facility notify a Medicaid resident of the amount of money in their account? Answer: When the account reaches $200 of the eligibility limit. ◉ How can the software help determine the new admissions? Answer: Any residents on the alphabetical list from the facility that are not in the software should be the admissions in the last 30 days ◉ When should QAPI/QAA task be completed? Answer: At the end of the survey ◉ What should be discussed at End of Day meetings? Answer: were offsite concerns validated?
