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PrepIQ 19SOFTA6 Software Quality Assurance A Ultimate Exam Course: Software Quality Assurance / Software Engineering Total Questions: 150 Question Type: Multiple Choice Description: This foundational examination covers the essential principles and practices of software quality assurance (SQA), including quality management concepts, software testing fundamentals, verification and validation, test planning and documentation, test design techniques (black-box and white- box), testing levels (unit, integration, system, acceptance), quality standards (ISO 9001, CMMI), software inspections and reviews, configuration management, defect tracking and management, quality metrics, and the role of quality assurance in the software development lifecycle. The exam explores the distinction between quality assurance and quality control, the cost of quality, static vs. dynamic testing, equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis, statement and branch coverage, regression testing, and the importance of early defect detection. This examination is suitable for undergraduate students in software engineering, computer science, and related fields.
1. Software quality is defined as: A) The absence of bugs in the software B) The degree to which software satisfies stated and implied needs C) The speed at which software executes D) The number of features in the software Answer: B Explanation: Software quality is defined as the degree to which software satisfies stated and implied needs, meeting both explicit requirements and user expectations. 2. Quality Assurance (QA) is primarily concerned with: A) Finding defects in the software B) Preventing defects through process improvement C) Fixing defects found during testing D) Writing code
Answer: B Explanation: QA is a proactive, process-oriented activity focused on preventing defects by improving the software development process.
3. Quality Control (QC) is primarily concerned with: A) Preventing defects B) Identifying defects through testing and inspection C) Writing requirements D) Designing software architecture Answer: B Explanation: QC is a reactive, product-oriented activity focused on identifying defects through testing and inspection of the software product. 4. The fundamental difference between QA and QC is: A) QA finds defects, QC prevents defects B) QA is process-oriented, QC is product-oriented C) QA is reactive, QC is proactive D) QA and QC are the same Answer: B Explanation: QA is process-oriented (preventing defects through process improvement), while QC is product-oriented (identifying defects in the final product). 5. Verification in software development answers the question: A) "Are we building the right product?" B) "Are we building the product right?" C) "Is the product on schedule?" D) "Is the product within budget?" Answer: B Explanation: Verification checks that the product is being built correctly according to specifications ("Are we building the product right?"). 6. Validation in software development answers the question: A) "Are we building the right product?" B) "Are we building the product right?" C) "Is the product on schedule?" D) "Is the product within budget?" Answer: A Explanation: Validation checks that the product meets user needs and expectations ("Are we building the right product?"). 7. Which of the following is a verification activity? A) User acceptance testing
Answer: C Explanation: Code inspection is a static testing technique that involves reviewing code without executing it.
12. Which of the following is an example of dynamic testing? A) Requirements review B) Design walkthrough C) Unit testing D) Code inspection Answer: C Explanation: Unit testing involves executing the code, making it a dynamic testing activity. 13. The V-model of software testing shows the relationship between: A) Development phases and testing phases B) Testers and developers C) Users and developers D) Requirements and design Answer: A Explanation: The V-model maps development phases (left side) to corresponding testing phases (right side), showing how testing validates each development stage. 14. In the V-model, unit testing corresponds to: A) Requirements specification B) System design C) Detailed design D) Coding Answer: D Explanation: Unit testing verifies the code (coding phase) and is the first level of testing in the V-model. 15. In the V-model, integration testing corresponds to: A) Requirements specification B) System design C) Detailed design D) Coding Answer: C Explanation: Integration testing corresponds to the detailed design phase, verifying that modules integrate correctly. 16. In the V-model, system testing corresponds to: A) Requirements specification
B) System design C) Detailed design D) Coding Answer: B Explanation: System testing corresponds to the system design phase, verifying the complete system against system requirements.
17. In the V-model, acceptance testing corresponds to: A) Requirements specification B) System design C) Detailed design D) Coding Answer: A Explanation: Acceptance testing corresponds to the requirements specification phase, verifying that the system meets user requirements. 18. The waterfall model's testing phase occurs: A) Before coding B) Concurrently with coding C) After coding is complete D) Before requirements are defined Answer: C Explanation: In the waterfall model, testing occurs after coding and integration are complete, near the end of the lifecycle. 19. The Agile software development model emphasizes: A) Testing only at the end B) Testing continuously throughout development C) No testing D) Testing by users only Answer: B Explanation: Agile development integrates testing continuously throughout the development cycle (test early, test often). 20. A test plan is a document that describes: A) The software architecture B) The testing strategy, scope, resources, and schedule C) The user interface design D) The database schema Answer: B Explanation: The test plan documents the testing strategy, scope, resources, schedule, and deliverables for the testing effort.
(equivalence classes) that are expected to be handled the same way by the software.
26. Boundary value analysis is a black-box test design technique that tests: A) Values at the boundaries of equivalence partitions B) Random values within the range C) Only the middle values D) Only the minimum values Answer: A Explanation: Boundary value analysis focuses on testing the values at the edges (boundaries) of equivalence partitions, where defects are most likely. 27. If a valid input range is 1 to 100, boundary value analysis would test: A) 1, 50, 100 B) 0, 1, 100, 101 C) 1, 2, 99, 100 D) All values from 1 to 100 Answer: B Explanation: Boundary value analysis tests boundary values: 0 (just below lower boundary), 1 (lower boundary), 100 (upper boundary), and 101 (just above upper boundary). 28. Decision table testing is useful when the system has: A) Simple logic with one condition B) Complex logic with multiple conditions and outcomes C) No conditions D) Only one input Answer: B Explanation: Decision table testing is used for systems with complex business logic where different combinations of conditions produce different outcomes. 29. State transition testing is used for systems that: A) Have no states B) Have a finite number of states and transitions C) Have only one state D) Have no transitions Answer: B Explanation: State transition testing is used for systems that can be modeled as a finite state machine with defined states and transitions. 30. Use case testing is based on: A) The code structure
B) Interactions between users and the system (scenarios) C) The database schema D) The user interface only Answer: B Explanation: Use case testing validates the system against use cases that describe interactions between users and the system.
31. White-box testing is also known as: A) Black-box testing B) Clear-box testing C) Functional testing D) User acceptance testing Answer: B Explanation: White-box testing (also called clear-box or glass-box testing) is based on the internal structure and code of the software. 32. White-box testing requires knowledge of: A) The external specifications only B) The internal code and logic C) The user interface D) The system requirements only Answer: B Explanation: White-box testing requires knowledge of the internal code, logic, and structure of the software. 33. Statement coverage ensures that: A) Every statement in the code is executed at least once B) Every branch is executed at least once C) Every path is executed at least once D) Every condition is evaluated Answer: A Explanation: Statement coverage requires that each executable statement in the code is executed at least once by the test suite. 34. Branch coverage ensures that: A) Every statement in the code is executed at least once B) Every branch (decision) in the code is executed at least once C) Every path is executed at least once D) Every condition is evaluated Answer: B Explanation: Branch coverage (also called decision coverage) requires that
C) The complete integrated system against requirements D) The user interface only Answer: C Explanation: System testing tests the complete integrated system to ensure it meets the specified requirements.
40. Acceptance testing is performed: A) Before unit testing B) During development C) Before deployment, to validate user requirements D) After deployment Answer: C Explanation: Acceptance testing is performed before deployment to validate that the system meets user needs and acceptance criteria. 41. Alpha testing is performed by: A) Developers in the development environment B) Users in a controlled environment (at the development site) C) Users in a real environment (production) D) The quality assurance team Answer: B Explanation: Alpha testing is performed by users in a controlled environment at the development site. 42. Beta testing is performed by: A) Developers B) Users in a controlled environment C) Users in a real environment (production) D) The quality assurance team Answer: C Explanation: Beta testing is performed by users in a real (live) environment before the software is released. 43. Regression testing is performed to: A) Test new functionality for the first time B) Ensure that changes have not introduced defects into existing functionality C) Test the system's performance D) Test the system's security Answer: B Explanation: Regression testing verifies that changes (bug fixes, enhancements) have not broken existing functionality.
44. Regression testing is typically: A) Manual B) Automated C) Performed once D) Not performed in Agile Answer: B Explanation: Regression testing is often automated because it must be executed frequently after each change. 45. Smoke testing is a preliminary test to: A) Test all functionality thoroughly B) Ensure the basic functionality works (build verification) C) Test the system's security D) Test the system's performance Answer: B Explanation: Smoke testing (build verification testing) is a quick test to ensure that the critical functionality of a new build works. 46. Sanity testing is a focused test to: A) Verify that a specific fix works B) Test all functionality C) Test the system's performance D) Test the system's security Answer: A Explanation: Sanity testing is a focused test to verify that a particular bug fix or change works and does not cause issues. 47. Exploratory testing involves: A) Following pre-defined test scripts B) Simultaneous test design and execution, with the tester learning the system C) Executing automated tests D) Testing the system's performance Answer: B Explanation: Exploratory testing is an approach where testers simultaneously design and execute tests while learning the system. 48. Ad-hoc testing is: A) Structured testing with test cases B) Informal, unstructured testing without test cases C) Automated testing D) Performance testing
C) Ignored D) Fixed by the user Answer: A Explanation: Critical severity defects with high priority require immediate attention and should be fixed as soon as possible.
54. A defect with minor severity and low priority should be: A) Fixed immediately B) Fixed in a future release, if time allows C) Critical D) Prioritized over critical defects Answer: B Explanation: Minor severity, low priority defects can be postponed to future releases if time and resources are limited. 55. A defect report typically includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Steps to reproduce B) Expected result and actual result C) Software design document D) Severity and priority Answer: C Explanation: A defect report includes steps to reproduce, expected and actual results, severity, priority, and environment—not the design document. 56. The defect lifecycle includes: A) New, Open, Fixed, Verified, Closed B) New, Write, Compile, Execute, Release C) Plan, Design, Code, Test, Deploy D) Requirements, Design, Code, Test Answer: A Explanation: The typical defect lifecycle is: New → Open → Assigned → Fixed → Verified → Closed (or Reopened). 57. When a developer fixes a defect, the defect status changes to: A) New B) Open C) Fixed D) Closed Answer: C Explanation: After the defect is fixed, the status is changed to "Fixed" and sent for verification.
58. When a tester verifies that a defect is fixed, the defect status changes to: A) New B) Open C) Fixed D) Closed Answer: D Explanation: If the fix is verified and works correctly, the defect is closed. 59. A defect is "reopened" when: A) The defect is fixed B) The defect is not fixed or the fix has failed C) The defect is closed D) The defect is new Answer: B Explanation: A defect is reopened when the fix is found to be incorrect or the defect persists. 60. The cost of fixing a defect: A) Increases as the defect is found later in the lifecycle B) Decreases as the defect is found later in the lifecycle C) Is constant D) Is unpredictable Answer: A Explanation: Defects found later in the lifecycle (e.g., in production) are significantly more expensive to fix than those found in requirements or design. 61. The "Rule of Ten" in defect economics states that: A) It costs ten times more to fix a defect in testing than in requirements B) It costs ten times less to fix a defect later C) All defects cost the same D) Defects are free Answer: A Explanation: The Rule of Ten states that it costs approximately ten times more to fix a defect at each later stage of the lifecycle. 62. The cost of quality includes: A) Prevention costs only B) Appraisal costs only C) Failure costs only D) Prevention, appraisal, and failure costs
B) Computerized Model Management Interface C) Comprehensive Management Maturity Index D) Capability Management Model Integration Answer: A Explanation: CMMI stands for Capability Maturity Model Integration, a process improvement model for software and system development.
68. CMMI has how many maturity levels? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Explanation: CMMI has five maturity levels: Initial, Managed, Defined, Quantitatively Managed, and Optimizing. 69. At CMMI Level 1 (Initial), processes are: A) Defined and documented B) Ad-hoc and chaotic C) Measured quantitatively D) Continuously improving Answer: B Explanation: At Level 1, processes are ad-hoc and chaotic; success depends on individual effort. 70. At CMMI Level 2 (Managed), the organization: A) Has no processes B) Has basic project management processes established C) Uses quantitative measurements D) Continuously improves Answer: B Explanation: At Level 2, basic project management processes (e.g., requirements management, project planning) are established. 71. At CMMI Level 3 (Defined), the organization has: A) Ad-hoc processes B) Standardized processes across the organization C) Quantitative process management D) Continuous improvement Answer: B Explanation: At Level 3, processes are well-defined, documented, and standardized across the organization.
72. At CMMI Level 4 (Quantitatively Managed), the organization: A) Has ad-hoc processes B) Uses quantitative measurements to manage processes C) Has no defined processes D) Focuses on continuous improvement Answer: B Explanation: At Level 4, the organization uses quantitative techniques to measure and manage process performance. 73. At CMMI Level 5 (Optimizing), the organization: A) Has no processes B) Is focused on continuous process improvement C) Uses ad-hoc processes D) Has defined processes only Answer: B Explanation: At Level 5, the organization focuses on continuous process improvement through quantitative feedback. 74. Software inspections are: A) Formal reviews of software artifacts to find defects B) Informal walkthroughs C) Code execution D) Testing sessions Answer: A Explanation: Software inspections are formal, structured reviews of software artifacts (requirements, design, code) to identify defects. 75. A code review is a: A) Formal inspection B) Review of code by developers to find defects and improve quality C) Code execution D) Testing session Answer: B Explanation: Code review is a systematic examination of source code by developers to find defects, improve quality, and share knowledge. 76. A walkthrough is: A) A formal inspection B) An informal review where the author presents the work to peers C) A code execution D) A testing session
C) Reviews the code only D) Deploys the code only Answer: A Explanation: The build process compiles source code, runs unit tests, and creates executable artifacts (e.g., JAR, EXE).
82. A nightly build is a build that: A) Runs once a week B) Runs every night C) Runs every month D) Runs only on demand Answer: B Explanation: A nightly build is an automated build that runs every night to provide early feedback on integration issues. 83. Traceability in software testing refers to: A) The ability to trace requirements to test cases B) The ability to trace code to design C) The ability to trace defects to test cases D) All of the above Answer: D Explanation: Traceability links requirements to test cases, design to code, and defects to their sources. 84. A traceability matrix is used to: A) Track the relationship between requirements and test cases B) Track the code structure C) Track the user interface design D) Track the database schema Answer: A Explanation: A traceability matrix maps requirements to test cases to ensure all requirements are tested. 85. The term "test oracle" refers to: A) A source of expected results for a test B) A test automation tool C) A test case D) A defect report Answer: A Explanation: A test oracle is a mechanism that provides the expected results for a test case (e.g., documentation, previous version).
86. Mutation testing is a technique used to: A) Test the user interface B) Evaluate the effectiveness of the test suite by introducing changes (mutants) C) Test the system's performance D) Test the system's security Answer: B Explanation: Mutation testing introduces small changes (mutants) to the code to assess whether the test suite detects them. 87. If a mutant is "killed" in mutation testing, it means: A) The test suite detected the change (test failed) B) The test suite did not detect the change (test passed) C) The test was not executed D) The code was not changed Answer: A Explanation: A mutant is "killed" when a test case detects the change (fails), indicating the test suite is effective. 88. Root cause analysis is performed to: A) Fix a defect B) Identify the underlying cause of a defect to prevent recurrence C) Test the software D) Write the code Answer: B Explanation: Root cause analysis identifies the fundamental cause of a defect to prevent similar defects in the future. 89. The "5 Whys" technique is a method for: A) Test design B) Root cause analysis C) Code review D) Project management Answer: B Explanation: The 5 Whys is a root cause analysis technique that asks "why" repeatedly to identify the root cause of a problem. 90. Defect density is a metric that measures: A) The number of defects per thousand lines of code (KLOC) B) The number of defects per test case C) The number of defects per module D) The number of defects per user story
