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Question 1. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of software testing? A) To fix all defects in the code B) To prove that the software is bug‑free C) To find defects and provide information about quality D) To write documentation for the system Answer: C Explanation: The main goal of testing is to uncover defects and give stakeholders confidence and information about the product’s quality; it is not intended to fix defects or guarantee perfection. Question 2. In the context of software development, what distinguishes testing from debugging? A) Testing is performed by developers, debugging by testers B) Testing discovers defects, debugging removes them C) Testing requires code execution, debugging does not D) Testing is optional, debugging is mandatory Answer: B Explanation: Testing aims to detect defects, while debugging is the process of locating, analyzing, and fixing those defects. Question 3. Which role is primarily responsible for defining quality standards and ensuring they are followed throughout the SDLC? A) Tester B) Project Manager C) Quality Assurance (QA) Engineer D) Business Analyst Answer: C
Explanation: QA engineers focus on establishing and enforcing quality processes and standards across the development lifecycle. Question 4. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of software defects? A) High code complexity B) Inadequate requirements communication C) Excessive unit testing D) Time pressure to release Answer: C Explanation: While excessive testing may cause schedule strain, it does not directly cause defects; the other options are typical defect sources. Question 5. An “error” in software engineering is best defined as: A) A failure observed by the user B) A mistake made by a person that may lead to a defect C) A defect present in the codebase D) A breach of security policy Answer: B Explanation: An error is a human mistake (e.g., misunderstanding a requirement) that can introduce a defect (fault) in the software. Question 6. According to the principle “Testing shows the presence of defects,” which statement is true? A) Passing all tests guarantees defect‑free software B) A single failed test proves the existence of at least one defect C) Testing can prove that no defects exist D) Defects can be eliminated without testing
D) Test scripts are version‑controlled Answer: B Explanation: Traceability maps requirements to test cases and defects, enabling impact analysis and coverage verification. Question 10. In a Waterfall SDLC model, when is testing typically performed? A) Continuously throughout development B) After the coding phase is completed C) Before any requirements are gathered D) Simultaneously with design activities Answer: B Explanation: Waterfall follows a sequential approach; testing is a distinct phase that begins after implementation is finished. Question 11. Which testing model explicitly pairs each development phase with a corresponding testing phase? A) Spiral model B) V‑Model C) Incremental model D) Prototyping model Answer: B Explanation: The V‑Model maps development stages on the left side to testing activities on the right side, forming a “V” shape. Question 12. In Agile, who is primarily responsible for writing acceptance criteria? A) Scrum Master B) Product Owner
C) Development Team D) QA Lead Answer: B Explanation: The Product Owner defines clear acceptance criteria for user stories to guide development and testing. Question 13. Continuous Integration (CI) mainly helps testing by: A) Deploying software directly to production without testing B) Merging code changes frequently and running automated tests on each merge C) Eliminating the need for unit testing D) Requiring manual regression testing after each release Answer: B Explanation: CI automates building and testing of each code integration, catching defects early. Question 14. Which test level focuses on verifying interactions between integrated modules? A) Unit testing B) Integration testing C) System testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: B Explanation: Integration testing evaluates the interfaces and data flow between combined components. Question 15. The “Big‑Bang” integration testing strategy is characterized by: A. Incrementally adding modules one at a time B. Testing all modules together after all are integrated
A) Confirmation testing validates that a fixed defect is now resolved; regression testing checks for side effects elsewhere. B) Regression testing is performed only after release. C) Confirmation testing is automated, regression testing is manual. D) Regression testing focuses on performance only. Answer: A Explanation: Re‑testing repeats the failed test case to confirm the fix; regression testing runs a broader suite to ensure no new defects were introduced. Question 19. Which of the following triggers is most likely to initiate maintenance testing? A) Initial system design approval B) A change to the underlying database schema C) Completion of the first sprint D) Creation of the test plan Answer: B Explanation: Modifying the database can affect existing functionality, prompting maintenance testing to verify unchanged behavior. Question 20. Static testing differs from dynamic testing because: A) It requires execution of the code under test. B) It examines work products without running the software. C) It can only be performed after system testing. D) It is only useful for performance evaluation. Answer: B Explanation: Static testing reviews artifacts (requirements, design, code) without executing the program.
Question 21. Which formal review role is responsible for facilitating the meeting and ensuring the process is followed? A) Author B) Reviewer C) Moderator D) Manager Answer: C Explanation: The moderator (or chair) guides the review session, enforces procedures, and records outcomes. Question 22. An “inspection” in the context of software reviews is distinguished by: A) Being informal and unstructured B) Having defined roles, a written entry/exit criteria, and a formal defect log C) Occurring only after code is deployed to production D) Being performed solely by the development manager Answer: B Explanation: Inspections are formal, with specific roles (author, reviewer, moderator), processes, and documented findings. Question 23. Equivalence Partitioning (EP) helps reduce the number of test cases by: A) Testing only the boundary values of each input range B) Grouping inputs that are expected to behave similarly and selecting one representative from each group C) Generating all possible combinations of inputs D) Randomly selecting test data from the input domain Answer: B
D) A batch data import script Answer: B Explanation: The ATM’s behavior depends on its current state and events, making state transition testing appropriate. Question 27. Use case testing primarily derives test scenarios from: A) Source code modules B) User stories and functional requirements describing interactions with the system C) Database schema definitions D) Network topology diagrams Answer: B Explanation: Use case testing follows the steps a user would take, based on documented use cases or user stories. Question 28. Statement coverage in white‑box testing ensures that: A) Every possible decision outcome is exercised B) Every executable line of code has been executed at least once C) All functions are called with valid inputs D) All requirements are verified Answer: B Explanation: Statement (or line) coverage measures whether each line of source code has been executed during testing. Question 29. Branch coverage is more thorough than statement coverage because it requires: A) Execution of every line of code at least twice B) Execution of each possible outcome of every decision point (e.g., true/false of an if)
C) Testing of all possible input combinations D) Verification of performance criteria Answer: B Explanation: Branch coverage forces tests to traverse each branch of control structures, giving higher confidence than merely executing statements. Question 30. Error guessing is an example of which test technique category? A) Black‑box testing B) White‑box testing C) Experience‑based testing D) Model‑based testing Answer: C Explanation: Error guessing relies on the tester’s experience and intuition about where defects are likely to be found. Question 31. Exploratory testing differs from scripted testing in that: A) Test cases are prepared in advance and never changed B. Test design, execution, and learning happen simultaneously without predefined scripts C. It can only be performed by senior testers D. It does not require any documentation of results Answer: B Explanation: Exploratory testing is a dynamic, charter‑driven approach where the tester explores the application while designing and executing tests on the fly. Question 32. A checklist‑based testing approach is most useful when: A) The system has no regulatory requirements B) The tester needs a quick, repeatable set of items to verify compliance or standards
B) Availability of a stable test environment C. All unit tests have passed with 100% code coverage D. Test data prepared and approved Answer: C Explanation: 100% unit test coverage is not a realistic or required entry condition for system testing; other items are typical prerequisites. Question 36. The “three‑point estimation” technique uses which three values? A) Optimistic, Pessimistic, Most Likely B) Minimum, Maximum, Average C) Best case, Worst case, Expected case D) Low, Medium, High Answer: A Explanation: Three‑point estimation (PERT) applies optimistic, pessimistic, and most‑likely estimates to calculate expected effort. Question 37. Risk‑based testing primarily helps to: A) Eliminate all testing activities to save cost B) Prioritize test effort on areas with highest probability and impact of failure C. Guarantee zero defects in high‑risk modules D. Replace functional testing with security testing Answer: B Explanation: By assessing risk (likelihood × impact), teams focus testing resources where failures would be most damaging. Question 38. Which metric is most appropriate for measuring test progress? A) Defect density per KLOC
B) Percentage of test cases executed versus total planned C. Lines of code written per day D. Number of test environments available Answer: B Explanation: Execution percentage directly reflects how much of the planned test work has been completed. Question 39. A “defect severity” of “Critical” typically indicates that: A) The defect must be fixed before the next release regardless of schedule B) The defect causes a complete system crash or data loss C) The defect is easy to reproduce but has minor UI impact D) The defect is low priority for the business Answer: B Explanation: Critical severity reflects a defect that severely impairs system functionality, often causing crashes or data loss. Question 40. In defect management, the status “Deferred” means: A) The defect has been fixed and closed B) The defect is being investigated by developers C. The defect will not be fixed in the current release but may be addressed later D. The defect is a duplicate of another issue Answer: C Explanation: “Deferred” indicates a decision to postpone fixing the defect, usually due to low priority or schedule constraints. Question 41. Which category of test tools primarily assists with creating and managing test cases, requirements, and reporting?
Question 44. Which of the following is a primary benefit of static code analysis tools? A) Measuring response time under load B) Detecting security vulnerabilities and coding standard violations without executing the program C. Generating UI test scripts automatically D. Providing real‑time user behavior analytics Answer: B Explanation: Static analysis examines source code for defects, security issues, and rule violations without running the software. Question 45. In the context of test data preparation, “synthetic data” refers to: A) Data copied from production databases B) Randomly generated data that mimics real‑world characteristics but does not contain actual user information C. Data obtained from third‑party vendors D. Data that is encrypted for security testing Answer: B Explanation: Synthetic data is artificially created to resemble production data while avoiding privacy concerns. Question 46. Which type of testing would most likely involve checking that a web application complies with the WCAG 2.1 guidelines? A) Security testing B) Usability testing C) Compatibility testing D) Accessibility testing
Answer: D Explanation: WCAG (Web Content Accessibility Guidelines) compliance is evaluated under accessibility testing. Question 47. The “Defect Life Cycle” stage where a tester verifies that a previously fixed defect no longer occurs is called: A) Open B) Fixed C) Re‑tested D. Closed Answer: C Explanation: After a fix is applied, the defect is re‑tested to confirm resolution before it can be closed. Question 48. Which of the following is an example of a “non‑functional” requirement? A) The system shall calculate tax at 7% B) The system shall allow users to reset passwords via email C) The system shall respond to user actions within 2 seconds D) The system shall generate monthly sales reports Answer: C Explanation: Response time is a performance attribute, a classic non‑functional requirement. Question 49. In a test environment, “baseline” refers to: A) The first version of the test script written B) A set of reference results or configuration against which future test runs are compared C. The highest priority defect in the backlog D. The total number of test cases planned
Answer: B Explanation: Detecting defects early (e.g., during requirements or design) reduces the effort and expense required to correct them later. Question 53. Which of the following is a key characteristic of “exploratory testing”? A) Test cases are written months before execution. B) Test execution is guided by a charter and the tester’s learning. C) It requires 100% code coverage. D. It can only be performed after regression testing. Answer: B Explanation: Exploratory testing is charter‑driven, allowing testers to adapt based on observations during execution. Question 54. In a decision table, the number of rules is determined by: A) The number of conditions multiplied by the number of actions B) The combinations of condition values (2^n for binary conditions) C) The number of test cases written by the tester D. The number of rows in the UI screen Answer: B Explanation: For binary conditions, each condition can be true or false, leading to 2^n possible rule combinations. Question 55. Which of the following best describes a “test harness”? A) A tool that records user interactions for later playback B) A set of software and test data configured to test a program unit in isolation C. A performance monitoring dashboard D. A document that lists test objectives and scope
Answer: B Explanation: A test harness provides the necessary infrastructure (stubs, drivers, data) to execute and control tests for a component. Question 56. The primary purpose of a “test summary report” is to: A) List all defects found during testing B) Provide stakeholders with an overview of testing activities, results, and any outstanding risks C. Detail the source code changes made during testing D. Describe the test environment configuration Answer: B Explanation: Test summary reports consolidate test execution data, coverage, defect status, and risk assessments for decision‑makers. Question 57. Which metric would you use to assess the effectiveness of a test suite in finding defects? A) Test case execution time B) Defect detection percentage (defects found / total known defects) C. Number of test cases written D. Lines of code covered Answer: B Explanation: Defect detection percentage indicates how many defects the suite uncovered relative to the total identified, reflecting effectiveness. Question 58. In configuration management, a “baseline” is important because: A) It defines the final release version of the product. B) It serves as a reference point for change control and ensures test artifacts are consistent. C. It automatically generates test cases.
