Surgical Specialties Revised Study Questions, Exams of General Surgery

Surgical Specialties Revised Study Questions

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 03/19/2026

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Surgical Specialties Revised Study Questions
1. Which of the following allows for the most stable and rigid
fixation of a
fracture?
Select one:
a. Locked plating system
b. Dynamic compression plating
c.
Semi-tubular plates
d.
Placement
of
a
lag
screw
across
the
fracture:
a. Locked plating
system
2. During the cementing of components during total joint
replacement, a new
CRNA who has never worked in orthopedics
before begins to panic. A side effect that possibly occurred with
this patient as a result of the cement is: Select one:
a.
Hypotension
b.
Hypertension
c.
Hyperthermia
d. Increase airway resistance: a.
Hypotension
3. Of the following, which is not included in the 5 P's of
compartment syn-
drome?
Select one:
a.
Pain
b.
Pallor
c.
Pulses
d.
Paresis:
c.
Pulses
4. When preoperatively assessing a patient for cardiac surgery, the
RNFA should
consider all of the following except:
a.
Bleeding times
b.
Glucose
c.
Immunosuppressant
use
d.
RBC
count:
d. RBC count
5. Of the nerves that are associated with the thyroid gland, which
one can be
affected by compression resulting from an enlarged
left atrium?
Select one:
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13

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1 / 19 Surgical Specialties Revised Study Questions

  1. Which of the following allows for the most stable and rigid fixation of a fracture? Select one: a. Locked plating system b. Dynamic compression plating c. Semi-tubular plates d. Placement of a lag screw across the fracture: a. Locked plating system
  2. During the cementing of components during total joint replacement, a new CRNA who has never worked in orthopedics before begins to panic. A side effect that possibly occurred with this patient as a result of the cement is: Select one: a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Hyperthermia d. Increase airway resistance: a. Hypotension
  3. Of the following, which is not included in the 5 P's of compartment syn- drome? Select one: a. Pain b. Pallor c. Pulses d. Paresis: c. Pulses
  4. When preoperatively assessing a patient for cardiac surgery, the RNFA should consider all of the following except: a. Bleeding times b. Glucose c. Immunosuppressant use d. RBC count: d. RBC count
  5. Of the nerves that are associated with the thyroid gland, which one can be affected by compression resulting from an enlarged left atrium? Select one:

2 / 19 a. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve b. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve c. Superior laryngeal nerve d. Inferior recurrent laryngeal nerve: a. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

  1. Injury to this particular layer of vascular tissue can initiate spasm and throm- bosis. Which layer must the RNFA be especially careful when handling? a. Endothelium b. Subendothelium c. Tunica Externa d. Tunica Media:
  2. Hesselbach triangle describes the location of the hernia. Which of the follow- ing structures compromise the medial border of the triangle? a. Lateral edge of the rectus abdominus muscle b. Inferior border of the inguinal ligament c. Anterior edge of the transversalis fascia d. Inferior edge of the transversalis fascia: a. Lateral edge of the rectus abdominus muscle
  3. During mastectomy, injury to which of the following nerves can result in a "winged scapula". Choose the correct nerve the RNFA must help protect. a. Thoracodorsal nerve b. Long thoracic nerve c. Brachial plexus d. Supraclavicular nerve: b. Long thoracic nerve
  4. Nipple discharge is more commonly associated with benign breast lesions than with cancer; however, discharge is usually significant only if it is sponta- neous, persistent, and: a. chronic b. unilateral c. bloody

4 / 19 b. Removal of cancerous mass only and fair cosmetic results c. Removal of cancerous mass with extra posterior margins of normal tissue d. Removal of cancerous mass with minimal lateral margins of normal tissue: a. Removal of cancerous mass with a margin of normal tissue

  1. Aneurysms may be caused by atherosclerosis, trauma, infection, or cystic medial degeneration. What presenting conditions will indicate that surgical intervention is necessary? a. Compromised circulation or danger of rupture b. Circumferential involvement c. Spindle-shaped morphology d. Combined saccular and fusiform morphology without dissection: a. Compromised circulation or danger of rupture
  2. The internal mammary arteries are frequently used as grafts during coro- nary bypass surgery. Where are they located? a. They branch from the anterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery. b. They branch from the subclavian arteries c. They diverge from the left coronary artery d. They diverge from the innominate artery: b. They branch from the subclavian arteries
  3. Identify the venous structure that prevents blood backflow. a. Semilunar intimal folds b. Coarctation segments c. Pressure receptors d. Venules: a. Semilunar intimal folds
  4. Acquired valvular heart disease most commonly affects the valves. Choose the correct answer. Select one: a. mitral b. tricuspid

5 / 19 c. pulmonic d. septal: a. mitral

  1. Laser stapedotomy results in which of the following? a. reduced post op dizziness b. no changes to post op hearing c. decreased cerumen production d. tympanic membrane rupture: a. reduced post op dizziness
  2. The pyramidal lobe of the thyroid is described as: a. a small lobe often involved in 30% of cases of thyroid dysfunction. b. a protrusion of an immature thyroglossal duct cyst overgrowth. c. a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus. d. a vestige of an embryonic thyroid cyst.: c. a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus.
  3. What term is used to describe inflammation of the gallbladder? a. Cholelithiasis b. Cholecystitis c. Choledocholithiasis d. Cholecystolithiasis: a. Cholelithiasis
  4. The most common complication of Meckel's diverticulum is: a. GI bleeding b. Intusseception c. Obstruction d. Volvulus: a. GI bleeding
  5. What muscles are separated longitudinally by the linea alba? a. Transversus b. External obliques c. Rectus abdominis d. Pyramidalis: c. Rectus abdominis

7 / 19 the statement about these organs that is true.

8 / 19 a. All three are solid organs and very vascular. b. All three are metabolic organs. c. All three organs have terminal attachments to the duodenum. d. All three organs impact blood clotting: a. All three are solid organs and very vascular.

  1. Steven Morganstein, a 51-year-old male with hepatobiliary disease, is sched- uled for surgery. During the preoperative assessment, you question and exam- ine the patient for signs and symptoms of jaundice, petechiae, and lethargy as well as: a. review his chart for bleeding and coagulation times and the platelet count. b. ask Steven his blood type and when he last donated blood. c. palpate Steven's abdomen for left upper quadrant tenderness and liver margins. d. review the findings of his endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoscopy (ERCP).: a. review his chart for bleeding and coagulation times and the platelet count.
  2. Describe the internal inguinal ring. a. A natural opening in the transversalis fascia b. Opening from the inguinal canal to the scrotum c. Opening to the inguinal canal formed by iliopectineal ligament d. Opening to the inguinal canal formed by the internal oblique aponeurosis: a. A natural opening in the transversalis fascia
  3. The colon wall has five distinct layers that include which of the following? a. Mucosa b. Intima c. Haustra d. Teniae coli: a. Mucosa
  4. The absence of distinct teniae serves as a visual landmark for what abdom- inal structure?

10 / 19 b. The posterior rectum c. The Splenic flexure d. The Hepatic flexure: a. Upper margin of the rectum

  1. Femoral hernias occur more frequently in which group of individuals? a. Postoperative obese patients b. Males c. Weight lifters d. Females: d. Females
  2. Skin grafting provides an effective way to cover a wound if vascularity is adequate, infection is absent, and hemostasis is achieved. Skin from the donor site is detached from its blood supply and placed in the recipient site. The best description of a successful skin graft outcome is: a. the skin is a good color match. b. the recipient site develops a new blood supply from the base of the wound. c. capillary refill returns within 24 hours. d. a split-thickness graft is able to regenerate in an area of full-thickness loss.: b. the recipient site develops a new blood supply from the base of the wound
  3. The nerve supply for the female pelvis comes from the autonomic nerves that enter the pelvis through the. a. Posterior hypogastric plexus b. Superior hypogastric plexus c. Greater sciatic foramen d. Anorectal junction: b. Superior hypogastric plexus
  4. Which structure supports the uterus and contains the uterine artery and vein? a. Cardinal ligaments b. Posterior uterine ligaments

11 / 19 c. Uterosacral ligaments d. Suspensory ligaments: a. Cardinal ligaments

13 / 19 b. Epidural

14 / 19 c. Subarachnoid d. Occipital: b. Epidural

  1. This cranial nerve, if injured in surgery, can result in vocal cord paralysis. Choose the correct nerve from the following. Select one: a. IX b. X c. XI d. VIII: b. X
  2. An example of an amphiarthrotic joint includes: a. Cervical vertebrae 1- 2 b. Suture joints of the skull c. Intervertebral joints d. Wrist joint: c. Intervertebral joints
  3. An important aspect to bone healing that is preserved through in- tramedullary reaming is which of the following? a. Immediate ambulation b. Maintenance of fracture hematoma c. Maintenance of osteoclast formation d. Maintenance of vascular flow: b. Maintenance of fracture hematoma
  4. A herniated disc most commonly occurs in which section of the vertebral column? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral: c. Lumbar
  5. Of the following, which is not a symptom of compartment syndrome? a. Parasthesia

16 / 19 cool him. The RNFA's appropriate risk reduction strategy in this situation would be to:

17 / 19 Select one: a. perform a careful assessment of family history to identify risk for developing malignant hyperthermia (MH) b. advise the anesthesia provider to find an alternative to succinylcholine and sevoflurane c. plan an inservice for the OR staff on MH crisis management d. pursue a physician order for a laboratory test to rule out MH: a. perform a careful assessment of family history to identify risk for developing malignant hyperthermia (MH)

  1. Once cervical spine precautions are implemented and a cervical collar is applied, what event needs to take place before the team removes the cervical collar and continues care? a. A halo traction apparatus is applied. b. A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck. c. A CT scan with contrast of the upper body is obtained to rule out vascular involvement. d. A myelogram of the cervical spinal canal is obtained to rule out injury to the spinal cord.: b. A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck.
  2. A 36 year old trauma patient is rushed to the OR with multiple penetrating gunshot and knife wounds to the abdomen. He is bleeding profusely. What ap- propriate action is critical in the rapid preparation of this patient for surgery? a. Set up the autotransfusion system. b. Prep the patient from the suprasternal notch to the mid-thigh. c. Place the aortic cross-clamp on the Mayo stand. d. Open a silo-bag closure system on the sterile field.: b. Prep the patient from the suprasternal notch to the mid-thigh.
  3. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is commonly used to assess patients with brain injury using three indicators of cerebral function: eye opening, verbal communication, and motor response to verbal and noxious stimuli. Within the scoring

19 / 19 a. 15; 3 b. 12; 0 c. 3; 15 d. 0; 12: a. 15; 3

  1. Select the injury or condition that reflect probable child abuse or neglect. a. Abrasions of both knees b. Multiple bug bites c. Forearm fracture from falling off swing d. Severe diaper rash with the presence of ammonia burns.: d. Severe diaper rash with the presence of ammonia burns.