Test questions for CRRN revised version updated, Exams of Nursing

Test questions for CRRN revised version updated

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 01/25/2026

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Test questions for CRRN revised version
updated
1.
The
INITIAL
purpose
of
stump
wrapping
is
to::
aid in venous return and reduce
swelling
2.
What is an important travel tip for people with COPD?: avoid elevation above
4000 feet
unless in a pressurized cabin
3.
What
produces
esophageal
speech?:
burping
to
exert
pressure
and
produce
vibration
4. What is not included in a patient's occupational history?: past learning
diflculties
5.
Blindness of the nasal half of one eye and the temporal half of
the other is
known as:: homonymous hemianopsia
6. The terms perceived "susceptibility," "perceived threat," and "cues
to action" are important concepts in which nursing theory?: health
belief model
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18

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Test questions for CRRN revised version

updated

  1. The INITIAL purpose of stump wrapping is to:: aid in venous return and reduce swelling
  2. What is an important travel tip for people with COPD?: avoid elevation above 4000 feet unless in a pressurized cabin
  3. What produces esophageal speech?: burping to exert pressure and produce vibration
  4. What is not included in a patient's occupational history?: past learning diflculties
  5. Blindness of the nasal half of one eye and the temporal half of the other is known as:: homonymous hemianopsia
  6. The terms perceived "susceptibility," "perceived threat," and "cues to action" are important concepts in which nursing theory?: health belief model

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  1. What bladder disorder will MOST likely be present in a patient with a CVA?: - uninhibited neurogenic bladder
  2. What is the legal definition of blindness?: visual field restriction of up to 20 degrees or central visual acuity in the better eye of no more than 20/
  3. Pursed lip breathing improves oxygenation because it:: keeps the alveoli open longer
  4. What is a result of injury to the satiety center?: overeating
  5. Tardive dyskinesia, associated with the prolonged use of psychotropic drugs, may be assessed by instructing the patient to:: grimace, smile, frown, pucker, and chew
  6. With normal capillary perfusion, the color will return within:: 3 seconds
  7. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a pt. experiencing physiolog- ical and/or psychosocial disturbances who has recently been transferred from one environment to another?: encourage pt's verbalization of feelings
  8. A patient who is unwilling to discuss his disability or to touch or look at his involved body parts may have a nursing diagnosis of::

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  1. What is the premise of the Bobath neurodevelopmental technique?: pt's learn the sensation of movement, not the movement itself
  2. Sleep deprivation can result in:: psychosis
  3. A patient who presents with drooling or insufficiently chewed food has a problem in which phase of the swallowing process?: oral
  4. Upon discharge, what is the MOST important learning outcome for the patient with quadriplegia?: demonstrating knowledge and skills of self care
  5. Which part of the brain control temperature?: hypothalamus
  6. In order to qualify for SSI, an individual must:: demonstrate financial need by income level
  7. In the absence of an audiologist, which professionals would formally evalu- ate a pt's hearing?: speech therapist
  8. The three point gate consists of:: moving both crutches forward along with the attected leg and followed by the unattected leg
  9. What is the most therapeutic position for distribution of body weight over bony prominences?: prone

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  1. Proprioceptors mediate deep somatic sensations related primarily to:: position and movement
  2. The most common barrier to community re-entry that a patient with disabil- ities encounters is:: societal attitudes
  3. What is a characteristic of the autonomous neurogenic bowel?: flaccid anal sphinc- ter
  4. Which cranial nerves innervate the muscles necessary for eye movemnet?: - oculomotor, abducens, and trochlear
  5. The factor determining Social Security Disability Insurance eligibility is that the person:: can no longer engage in gainful activity
  6. In a patient with hemiplegia, how should the affected shoulder be positioned to minimize the risk of shoulder problems?: abduction
  7. In developing a discharge plan, it is MOST essential to consider the patient's:- : previous lifestyle
  8. The sensory strip is located in the:: parietal lobe
  9. A neurological exam of a pt. with a complete lower motor neuron lesion would demonstrate which reflex activity?:

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  1. A patient with a complete SCI at T5 uses digital rectal stimulation to:: stimulate peristalsis and relax the anal spincter
  2. ALS affects:: skeletal muscles
  3. What is the lowest level of SCI that requires a pt. to be ventilator-dependent due to the neurological injury?: C
  4. A form of NEGLECT in which the pt. fails to recognize the severity of paralysis is:: anosognosia
  5. Which intervention is useful for a person with hypercalcemia?: force fluids
  6. What advice about walking should be given to the pt. with Parkinson's disease?: lift the toes with every step
  7. The MOST important treatment in promoting wound healing is:: a high protein diet
  8. A pt. with a right hemisphere CVA generally experience a DECREASE in:: pro- cessing of directional information
  9. The INITIAL step in planned change is to:: identify a need for change
  10. Subluxation of the shoulder in a pt. with hemiplegia can be prevented by:: - positioning

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  1. For the pt. with decreased attention span, the nurse should:: use repetition
  2. hat type of depression is a pt. MOST likely to experience following the onset of disability?: psychotic
  3. What is a true statement regarding a person with a laryngectomy?: breathing and coughing patterns change
  4. What is the primary purpose of the bridging technique?: avoid pressure on boney prominences
  5. A pt. whose SCI is above the sacral reflex arc generally has what type of neurogenic bladder?: reflex
  6. What best defines a contracture?: shortening of muscle fibers
  7. What is a MAJOR complication often occuring in pts. with a lower extremity amputation?: hip flexion contracture
  8. According to the gate control theory by Melzack and Wall, the: cells in the dorsal horn block transmission of nerve impulses
  9. In preparing a pt. for crutch walking, it is essential to:: begin exercises to strengthen the upper extremities
  10. The pt. seems unaware of objects on his right side. What is MOST important in planning how to help him compensate for this loss?:

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  1. Antihypertensives may cause urinary incontinence because they:: relax the smooth muscle of the bladder neck
  2. According to Lewin's theory, what are the stages of change?: unfreezing, moving, refreezing
  3. The act of recognizing objects on the basic of touching and manipulating them is:: stereognosis
  4. What is the MOST important part of a job analysis?: visit the job site
  5. What is the PLISSIT Model?: an approach used for sexual counseling that involves four levels of intervention
  6. How should a pt. with dysphagia and hemiplegia be positioned for meals: - leaning at 90 degrees leaning slightly forward
  7. A person with verbal apraxia experiences difficulty with:: voluntary speech
  8. What area of the spinal cord controls bladder, bowel, and sexual function- ing?: S2-S
  9. Intake of which foods should be increase during the

11 / 24 healing phase of a drainging pressure ulcer?: meat and legumes

  1. Positive Homan's sigh is an indication of:: thrombophlebitis
  2. What is the major focus of Orem's Nursing Model?: self-care
  3. When assessing the bowel function of a child with spinal bifida, the nurse is MOST likely to encounter:: inettective defecation reflex and leakage of fecal matter
  4. A positive gag reflex indicates that:: pharyngeal muscles are constricting
  5. When teaching the pt. with left hemiplegia to put on a button front shirt, the first instruction should be to:: put the left arm into the sleeve
  6. The motor strip is located in the:: frontal lobe
  7. The teaching plan for a pt. post MI who needs to travel extensively should include emphasis on the need to:: use two small suitcases instead of one large suitcase
  8. The MOST appropriate approach to manage fatique in a pt. with an exacer- bation of MS is to schedule:: moderate conditioning exercise and higher energy activities in the morning and following rest periods
  9. The pt. who is unable to roll over on command, but is able to do so sponta- neously, MOST likely suffers from which typ of apraxia?: ideomotor

13 / 24 and popliteal areas

  1. Which of the following is characteristic of a pt. with a CVA who has a propri- oceptive deficit on the affected side?: inability to know where the attected extremities are in relation to space
  2. Learned helplessness is caused by:: previous exposure to events over which a pt. had no control
  3. Which of the following techniques would BEST help the pt. with a recent am- putation deal with phantom sensations and prepare for prosthesis use?: gently stimulating the stump
  4. The average adult has a normal bladder capacity of approximately:: 250-400 ml
  5. What nursing diagnosis is BEST related to denial of physical disability six months after injury?: inettective individual coping
  6. Motor nerve fibers cross over in the brainstem at the level of the:: medulla
  7. A pt. with a posterior lesion of the first temporal gyrus of the left hemi- sphere has:: Wernicke's aphasia
  8. Besides joint pain, the MOST frequently cited causes of sexual impairment associated with rheumatoid arthritis include:: fatigue

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  1. The volume of air that can be exhaled by the deepest possible expiration after the deepest possible inspiration is known as:: vital capcity
  2. The MOST significant variable in determining a team's effectiveness is its:- : communication
  3. Which of the following approaches are MOST effective in managing phan- tom pain?: prosthesis usage and restoration of functional abilities
  4. Which act requires state and local sponsors to identify and recruit people with disabilities?: Comprehensive Employment and Training Act
  5. In Bobath's third stage of recovery of movement patterns for a stroke pt., spasticity is:: decreased
  6. A pt. who has sustained an injury to the conus medullaris will usually have which of the folowing bladder symptoms?: hypotonicity, no voiding reflex, overflow dribbling
  7. Nursing interventions for the patient with verbal apraxia include:: having the pt. use writing as an alternative to speaking
  8. What is the FIRST indicator of peripheral nerve impairment in a hip replace- ment patient?: paresthesia

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  1. Spatial-perceptual deficits are MOST commonly associated with:: right cerebral hemisphere lesion
  2. Which of the following MOST commonly occurs in conjunction with spina bifida?: hydrocephalus
  3. Mechanical friction on a wound delays wound healing because it:: disrupts granulation tissue
  4. Which ethical principle justifies an amptee's refusal to wear a prosthesis?: - autonomy
  5. What symptom is MOST frequent with peripheral thrombophlebitis?: sweling and redness in an extremity
  6. During the initial interview, the rehab nurse assesses a pt's cognition by:: - determining the pt's understanding of gestures and vocal inflections
  7. For a pt in the chronic stage of rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following interferes with functioning?: pain, muscle weakness, and joint disordees
  8. A nurse notes hyperactive reflexes and an increased

17 / 24 resistance to passive motion in the extremities. This is known as:: spasticity

  1. Which of the following can be achieved by a pt with C5 injury with biceps and most shoulder muscles functioning?: dressing the upper extremity, writing, and typing with devices
  2. Which wheelchair modifications is necessary for a sliding board transfer?: - removable arm rest
  3. The inability of a person to comprehend spatial relationships involving his or her body is called:: impaired proprioception
  4. What health and wellness theory is based on the belief that a person is capable of mobilizing his or her cognitive, socail, and behavioral skills?: self-eflcacy
  5. Which of the following does NOT typically characterize autonomic dysreflex- ia? hypotension; bradycardia; sweating; nasal obstruction: hypotension
  6. A patient with left hemiplegia would be MOST likely to present:: perceptual deficits
  7. The MOST effective bowel retraining program based on normal

19 / 24 accomplished by which of the following?: providing health related activities at a time that does not interfere with critical academic subjects or peer relationships

  1. Metered dose inhalers deliver medicine to pts. with lung disease. Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of this delivery method?: less likelihood for systemic side ettects
  2. The cost of health care has been positively impacted by which of the follow- ing action?: payment for home care services with federal funds
  3. What type of living environment provides supervised living for persons with similar disabilities and staff who are available at all times of the day and night?: group home
  4. The bulbocavernosus reflex is a test that is used frequently in which pt. population to determine if there is the potential for training the bowel to empty in response to a suppository or digital stimulation?: spinal cord injury
  5. Which of the following BEST defines cross-subsidization?: the practice of assigning some pts. more costs than they incur and others less
  6. A young woman has had a stroke as a result of cocaine usage. She has poor eye contact with staff, often is impatient with her abilities, has been seen by staff to injure affected limbs, and

20 / 24 frequently refers to herself as a cripple. This