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This licensing exam assesses candidates for the professional practice of chiropractic care in Texas. It evaluates knowledge of anatomy, physiology, pathology, chiropractic techniques, diagnostic procedures, radiology, patient management, and Texas chiropractic law and regulations. The exam ensures that applicants understand both clinical skills and legal responsibilities required for safe and effective chiropractic treatment, including the scope of practice, patient rights, and recordkeeping requirements in Texas.
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Question 1. Which surface landmark is used to locate the T3 vertebral level? A) Sternal angle B) Inferior border of the spinous process of the C7 vertebra C) Superior border of the scapula D) Level of the sternal notch Answer: A Explanation: The sternal angle (angle of Louis) corresponds approximately to the T4/T5 vertebral level, but it is often used as a reference for T3 in certain topographical assessments, especially when counting downward from the sternal angle. Question 2. The primary bones of the pectoral girdle include the: A) Clavicle and scapula
B) Humerus and clavicle C) Scapula and sternum D) Humerus and scapula Answer: A Explanation: The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and scapula, which connect the upper limb to the axial skeleton. Question 3. Which ligament stabilizes the acromioclavicular joint? A) Coracoacromial ligament B) Acromioclavicular ligament C) Coracoclavicular ligament D) Glenohumeral ligament Answer: B
Question 5. Which artery supplies blood to the lateral aspect of the forearm? A) Radial artery B) Ulnar artery C) Brachial artery D) Axillary artery Answer: A Explanation: The radial artery supplies blood to the lateral side of the forearm and hand, making it crucial for radial pulse palpation. Question 6. The drainage of lymph from the upper limb primarily occurs through which lymph nodes? A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Inguinal lymph nodes
C) Cervical lymph nodes D) Supraclavicular lymph nodes Answer: A Explanation: The axillary lymph nodes receive lymph from the upper limb, shoulder, and superficial thoracic wall. Question 7. The esophagus passes through which part of the diaphragm? A) Esophageal hiatus B) Aortic hiatus C) Caval opening D) Foramen of Morgagni Answer: A
A) Nephrons B) Glomeruli C) Tubules D) Cortical columns Answer: A Explanation: Nephrons are the functional units of the kidney responsible for filtration and urine formation. Question 10. The hormone responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood is produced by the: A) Parathyroid glands B) Thyroid gland C) Adrenal glands
D) Pituitary gland Answer: A Explanation: The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases blood calcium levels. Question 11. The skin's outermost layer is called: A) Epidermis B) Dermis C) Hypodermis D) Subcutaneous layer Answer: A Explanation: The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, providing a protective barrier.
C) Transverse process and vertebral foramen D) Intervertebral discs and facets Answer: A Explanation: The vertebral arch is formed by pedicles and laminae, protecting the spinal cord. Question 14. The central nervous system is primarily protected by the: A) Meninges and skull/vertebral column B) Blood-brain barrier only C) Cerebrospinal fluid alone D) Cranial nerves Answer: A
Explanation: The meninges (dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater) along with the skull and vertebral column protect the CNS. Question 15. The sympathetic nervous system arises from which spinal cord regions? A) T1-L B) C1-C C) S1-S D) L3-L Answer: A Explanation: The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system originates from the thoracolumbar segments T1-L2.
C) Myelin sheath D) Osteocyte Answer: D Explanation: Osteocytes are bone cells, not part of neurons. Question 18. The process of muscle contraction is initiated by: A) Release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) Depolarization of the neuron only C) ATP depletion in the mitochondria D) Lactic acid buildup Answer: A Explanation: Calcium release triggers actin-myosin cross-bridge cycling, leading to muscle contraction.
Question 19. The cardiac cycle consists of: A) Systole and diastole phases B) Inspiration and expiration C) Resting and active phases D) Diastasis and systasis Answer: A Explanation: The cardiac cycle includes systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation). Question 20. Which lung volume is measured during a forced exhalation after a maximal inspiration? A) Vital capacity
Answer: A Explanation: The nephron's processes of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion maintain fluid and electrolyte homeostasis. Question 22. The hormone responsible for stimulating the liver to release glucose is: A) Glucagon B) Insulin C) Cortisol D) Thyroxine Answer: A Explanation: Glucagon promotes glycogen breakdown in the liver, increasing blood glucose levels.
Question 23. The enzyme that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth is: A) Salivary amylase B) Pepsin C) Lipase D) Trypsin Answer: A Explanation: Salivary amylase begins starch digestion in the mouth. Question 24. The primary function of enzymes in biochemistry is to: A) Catalyze chemical reactions B) Provide energy C) Transport molecules
Question 26. The main energy currency of the cell is: A) ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) B) NADH C) FADH D) Glucose Answer: A Explanation: ATP provides energy for cellular processes. Question 27. The process of cell injury characterized by swelling and fat accumulation is called: A) Steatosis B) Necrosis C) Apoptosis
D) Fibrosis Answer: A Explanation: Steatosis refers to fatty change within cells due to lipid accumulation. Question 28. A chromosomal abnormality involving an extra copy of chromosome 21 causes: A) Down syndrome B) Turner syndrome C) Klinefelter syndrome D) Edwards syndrome Answer: A Explanation: Down syndrome results from trisomy 21, an extra chromosome 21.