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Question 1. When assessing an athletic facility for environmental safety, which is a primary concern for an athletic trainer? A) The type of sport played B) The proximity to local restaurants C) The presence of wet or slippery surfaces D) The brand of athletic equipment Answer: C Explanation: Wet or slippery surfaces are a major safety hazard that can increase the risk of slips, trips, and falls. Question 2. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure a football helmet is correctly fitted? A) Helmet sits two inches above the eyebrows B) Helmet moves freely when head is shaken C) Helmet fits snugly and covers the base of the skull D) Helmet is chosen based on color preference Answer: C Explanation: A properly fitted helmet should be snug and cover the base of the skull to maximize protection. Question 3. The most important step before applying any protective taping is to: A) Choose the color of tape B) Clean and dry the skin C) Ask the athlete’s favorite sport D) Call for a supervisor Answer: B Explanation: Clean, dry skin ensures better tape adhesion and reduces the risk of skin irritation. Question 4. A pre-participation physical should include which of the following? A) Only a vision test B) Joint range of motion and muscle strength assessment C) Just a medical history questionnaire D) Blood pressure only Answer: B Explanation: A comprehensive evaluation includes ROM and strength to detect risk factors for injury. Question 5. Which environmental factor is MOST likely to cause heat illness in athletes? A) Low humidity and cool temperatures B) High humidity and high temperature C) High altitude D) Cloudy weather Answer: B Explanation: High humidity and temperature hinder the body’s ability to dissipate heat, increasing heat illness risk. Question 6. When conducting a history for a sprained ankle, the MOST important question to ask first is: A) “Did you eat breakfast?” B) “How did the injury occur?” C) “What is your favorite team?” D) “What shoes are you wearing?”
Answer: B Explanation: Understanding the mechanism of injury is key for proper diagnosis and treatment. Question 7. While inspecting athletic equipment, an athletic trainer should check for: A) The athlete’s name written inside B) Cracks or broken straps on protective gear C) The team logo placement D) The weight of the equipment Answer: B Explanation: Cracks or broken straps compromise the protective function of equipment. Question 8. Which of the following is a primary goal of a pre-participation screening? A) To compare athletes’ heights B) To identify conditions that predispose athletes to injury C) To determine the team roster D) To assess academic performance Answer: B Explanation: Pre-participation exams aim to detect health or musculoskeletal risks before participation. Question 9. The most important sign of a properly fitted mouthguard is: A) It can be chewed easily B) It restricts breathing C) It covers the teeth and gums without restricting breathing or speech D) It is brightly colored Answer: C Explanation: A mouthguard should protect oral structures without impeding breath or communication. Question 10. When applying ankle taping for a lateral ankle sprain, the strips should primarily: A) Pull the ankle into inversion B) Restrict inversion and plantarflexion C) Allow unrestricted movement D) Only cover the toes Answer: B Explanation: Taping should support the ankle to prevent motions that caused the original injury. Question 11. Which is an example of a non-modifiable risk factor identified in a pre-participation exam? A) Inadequate muscle strength B) History of previous injury C) Poor flexibility D) Improper nutrition Answer: B Explanation: Previous injury history is non-modifiable, but it can increase future injury risk. Question 12. When inspecting a playing field, which hazard requires immediate correction? A) Dandelions growing on the sidelines B) Potholes or uneven surfaces C) The field is too green
Answer: B Explanation: AEDs are used for cardiac arrest when there is no pulse and the person is unresponsive. Question 19. Which is a sign of heat exhaustion? A) Dry skin, confusion, collapse B) Profuse sweating, pale skin, dizziness C) Muscle hypertrophy, increased appetite D) Shivering, blue lips Answer: B Explanation: Heat exhaustion is characterized by heavy sweating, pale skin, and dizziness. Question 20. The first action when approaching an unresponsive athlete is to: A) Begin chest compressions B) Check for scene safety and responsiveness C) Call their parents D) Remove their shoes Answer: B Explanation: Always ensure the scene is safe and check for responsiveness before providing aid. Question 21. When fitting shoulder pads, the pads should: A) Sit one inch away from the shoulders B) Completely cover the shoulders and clavicle C) Be as loose as possible D) Only cover the chest Answer: B Explanation: Properly fitted pads protect both shoulders and the clavicle. Question 22. The best initial management for a bleeding open wound is to: A) Apply direct pressure with a clean dressing B) Pour water over the wound C) Remove embedded objects D) Apply a tourniquet immediately Answer: A Explanation: Direct pressure with a clean dressing helps control bleeding most effectively. Question 23. For which condition is immediate cooling MOST critical? A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat stroke C) Muscle cramp D) Mild dehydration Answer: B Explanation: Heat stroke is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate cooling. Question 24. Which of the following would be included in the subjective portion of a SOAP note? A) Athlete’s description of pain level B) Swelling observed by the trainer C) Special test results D) Range of motion measurements Answer: A Explanation: The subjective section includes what the patient reports, such as symptoms and pain.
Question 25. When should protective bracing be considered for an athlete? A) Only after surgery B) When there is a history of joint instability C) For all healthy athletes D) Only during practice, not games Answer: B Explanation: Bracing is especially useful for athletes with a history of instability to prevent recurrence. Question 26. Which of the following is a sign of a cervical spine injury? A) Muscle cramp in the calf B) Numbness and tingling in the extremities C) Increased appetite D) Sweaty palms Answer: B Explanation: Numbness and tingling can indicate nerve involvement from a cervical spine injury. Question 27. What is the primary purpose of pre-participation cardiovascular screening? A) To improve running speed B) To identify risk for sudden cardiac events C) To increase muscular strength D) To check for skin infections Answer: B Explanation: Cardiovascular screening aims to detect conditions that could lead to sudden cardiac death. Question 28. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action for a suspected neck injury on the field? A) Move the athlete to the sideline immediately B) Stabilize the head and neck and call EMS C) Ask the athlete to stand up D) Remove the helmet Answer: B Explanation: Stabilization and EMS activation are critical for suspected cervical spine injuries. Question 29. The main reason to perform a resistive strength test during an injury evaluation is to: A) Assess the athlete’s pain tolerance B) Determine muscle or tendon injury C) Check for dehydration D) Evaluate cardiovascular health Answer: B Explanation: Resistive strength tests help identify muscle or tendon injuries. Question 30. A positive Lachman test is indicative of: A) Medial meniscus tear B) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury C) Quadriceps strain D) Patellar dislocation Answer: B Explanation: The Lachman test specifically assesses the integrity of the ACL.
Question 37. The primary purpose of using a vacuum splint in fracture management is to: A) Allow for immediate movement B) Immobilize the fracture site C) Reduce swelling D) Apply heat to the injury Answer: B Explanation: Vacuum splints conform to the limb and immobilize fractures for safe transport. Question 38. When should an athlete be removed from play for heat illness? A) Only if they faint B) As soon as any symptoms of heat illness appear C) When they ask for water D) If they win the game Answer: B Explanation: Immediate removal and cooling are necessary at the first sign of heat illness. Question 39. What is the most effective method to cool an athlete with exertional heat stroke? A) Place cold towels on forehead B) Full-body immersion in cold water C) Drink ice water only D) Sit in front of a fan Answer: B Explanation: Full-body cold water immersion is the fastest, most effective cooling method for heat stroke. Question 40. Which of the following is NOT a sign of shock? A) Cool, clammy skin B) Rapid, weak pulse C) Red, flushed skin with slow pulse D) Altered mental status Answer: C Explanation: Shock is associated with cool, clammy skin and rapid, weak pulse, not flushed skin and slow pulse. Question 41. The most important consideration when using a spine board for immobilization is: A) Athlete’s jersey color B) Maintaining head and neck alignment C) Athlete’s position on the field D) Athlete’s shoe size Answer: B Explanation: Maintaining alignment prevents further spinal cord injury during transfer. Question 42. During a sideline assessment, a “step-off” deformity in the spine suggests: A) Muscle strain B) Vertebral fracture or dislocation C) Ligament sprain D) Scoliosis Answer: B Explanation: A “step-off” indicates a possible fracture or dislocation of the vertebrae.
Question 43. When an athlete reports “giving way” of the knee, this suggests: A) Ligamentous instability B) Patellar tendonitis C) Shin splints D) Quadriceps bruise Answer: A Explanation: “Giving way” is a classic symptom of ligamentous instability in the knee. Question 44. The primary purpose of the “buddy taping” technique is to: A) Increase flexibility B) Immobilize an injured finger or toe with an adjacent digit C) Reduce swelling D) Improve circulation Answer: B Explanation: Buddy taping provides support by securing an injured digit to an adjacent, uninjured one. Question 45. Which of the following is a contraindication for returning to play after a concussion? A) Athlete is headache-free and has normal balance B) Athlete is asymptomatic with exertion C) Athlete has persistent symptoms or neurocognitive deficits D) Athlete has completed gradual return to play protocol Answer: C Explanation: Persistent symptoms or neurocognitive deficits prohibit return to play after concussion. Question 46. When assessing a suspected rib fracture, which test is most informative? A) Palpation for tenderness and crepitus B) Having the athlete run laps C) Checking for scalp tenderness D) Assessing ankle ROM Answer: A Explanation: Palpation over the ribs reveals tenderness or crepitus, indicating possible fracture. Question 47. A “saddle pad” is commonly used for which body area? A) Shoulder B) Hip C) Elbow D) Knee Answer: B Explanation: Saddle pads are used to protect the hip in contact sports or after contusion. Question 48. When taping an athlete’s wrist for support, the anchor strips should be placed: A) Directly over the wrist crease B) Proximal and distal to the area being supported C) Only on the fingers D) Across the palm Answer: B Explanation: Anchors should be placed above and below the injured area to secure the tape job.
B) Supine with legs elevated C) Prone D) Standing Answer: B Explanation: Supine with legs elevated improves venous return and helps maintain perfusion. Question 56. Which of the following should NOT be done when caring for a suspected cervical spine injury? A) Remove the helmet if trained and necessary B) Move the athlete before stabilization C) Maintain manual in-line stabilization D) Monitor breathing and circulation Answer: B Explanation: Never move a suspected spine injury before proper stabilization. Question 57. The most significant risk factor for sudden cardiac death in young athletes is: A) Asthma B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C) High cholesterol D) Finger fracture Answer: B Explanation: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes. Question 58. Which action is MOST appropriate when caring for an avulsed tooth? A) Rinse the tooth and reinsert into the socket immediately B) Place the tooth in ice water C) Discard the tooth D) Wrap the tooth in dry gauze Answer: A Explanation: Immediate reimplantation increases the chance of tooth survival. Question 59. Which is a sign of compartment syndrome in an extremity? A) Redness of the skin only B) Severe pain, pallor, and paresthesia C) Increased appetite D) Cold, dry skin Answer: B Explanation: Compartment syndrome presents with pain, pallor, paresthesia, and sometimes pulselessness. Question 60. Which of the following is a contraindication to using an elastic wrap for compression? A) Mild swelling B) Fracture with compromised circulation C) Minor contusion D) After a workout Answer: B Explanation: Compression should not be used if circulation is impaired or a fracture is present.
Question 61. When fitting a knee brace, the hinge should be aligned with: A) The tibial tuberosity B) The midline of the patella C) The joint line of the knee D) The femoral shaft Answer: C Explanation: Proper hinge alignment at the knee joint line ensures optimal support and function. Question 62. Which observation during gait assessment indicates possible lower extremity injury? A) Normal stride length B) Limping or antalgic gait C) Smooth, fluid movement D) Swinging arms Answer: B Explanation: Limping or altered gait patterns suggest injury or pain in the lower extremity. Question 63. A “squeeze test” of the lower leg is used to assess for: A) Achilles tendon rupture B) Syndesmotic (“high”) ankle sprain C) Tibial stress fracture D) Medial meniscus tear Answer: B Explanation: The squeeze test helps diagnose high ankle sprains by compressing the tibia and fibula. Question 64. When applying a horseshoe pad and compression wrap for ankle swelling, the pad should be placed: A) On the dorsal surface of the foot B) Beneath the malleolus on the lateral and medial sides C) On the shin D) On the toes Answer: B Explanation: Horseshoe pads are used under the malleoli to manage swelling from ankle injuries. Question 65. Which of the following is a sign of a possible eye injury requiring immediate referral? A) Mild tearing B) Double vision or loss of vision C) Eye redness only D) Itchy eyelid Answer: B Explanation: Double vision or loss of vision may indicate serious injury and needs immediate referral. Question 66. When using crutches for non-weight bearing ambulation, the elbows should be flexed at: A) 0 degrees B) 15-30 degrees C) 90 degrees D) 60 degrees Answer: B Explanation: Elbows should be slightly flexed (15-30 degrees) for comfort and effectiveness.
Question 73. When should an athletic trainer refer an athlete for further evaluation of a musculoskeletal injury? A) Only if the injury is not painful B) If there is gross deformity, loss of function, or suspected fracture C) If the athlete is hungry D) Only after two weeks Answer: B Explanation: Severe injuries with deformity or loss of function require physician evaluation. Question 74. Which test is used to assess the integrity of the Achilles tendon? A) Thompson test B) McMurray’s test C) Valgus stress test D) Anterior drawer test Answer: A Explanation: The Thompson test checks for Achilles tendon rupture by squeezing the calf. Question 75. Which of the following is the most important consideration when returning an athlete to play after injury? A) The athlete’s desire to play B) Resolution of symptoms and restoration of function C) Upcoming championship game D) Coach’s request Answer: B Explanation: Return to play decisions should be based on recovery and full function, not external pressures. Question 76. Which is the BEST method to prevent skin infections in a locker room? A) Sharing towels B) Regular cleaning and disinfecting surfaces C) Using the same soap for everyone D) Wearing shoes outdoors only Answer: B Explanation: Disinfecting surfaces and personal hygiene reduce the risk of skin infection spread. Question 77. When performing passive range of motion (PROM), the athletic trainer should: A) Allow the athlete to move the joint independently B) Move the athlete’s joint through its available range without muscle contraction C) Have the athlete resist movement D) Only move the joint halfway Answer: B Explanation: PROM is performed by the examiner to determine joint mobility without muscle effort. Question 78. The “sulcus sign” is used to assess which type of instability? A) Posterior elbow instability B) Inferior glenohumeral instability C) Medial knee instability D) Lateral ankle instability Answer: B Explanation: The sulcus sign checks for inferior instability of the shoulder joint.
Question 79. When should an athlete with asthma be removed from play? A) After the game ends B) If they experience shortness of breath that does not resolve with rescue inhaler C) If they win the race D) At halftime Answer: B Explanation: Persistent symptoms despite medication warrant removal and possible emergency care. Question 80. Which of the following is an appropriate step in the management of epistaxis (nosebleed)? A) Lean head forward and pinch the nostrils B) Lean head back and pinch the nostrils C) Blow the nose forcefully D) Apply ice to the back of the neck Answer: A Explanation: Forward head position and direct pressure help control nosebleeds. Question 81. What is the primary purpose of a “return to play” protocol after concussion? A) To win more games B) To ensure safe, gradual return to activity without symptoms C) To punish the athlete D) To increase team size Answer: B Explanation: Gradual progression prevents recurrence or worsening of symptoms. Question 82. When using an AED, what is the MOST important first step? A) Apply pads and turn on the AED B) Remove all jewelry C) Check shoe size D) Give the athlete water Answer: A Explanation: Applying pads and turning on the AED allows for a rapid shock if indicated. Question 83. The “valgus stress test” of the elbow is used to assess which ligament? A) Annular ligament B) Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) C) Radial collateral ligament D) Biceps tendon Answer: B Explanation: The UCL is tested in the elbow with valgus stress. Question 84. When evaluating a head injury, which symptom indicates increased intracranial pressure? A) Slow, shallow breathing and bradycardia B) Increased appetite C) Decreased thirst D) Increased urination Answer: A Explanation: Slow breathing and bradycardia are signs of increased intracranial pressure.
B) Tibia or fibula fracture C) Plantar fasciitis D) Patellar dislocation Answer: B Explanation: The bump test can elicit pain in the presence of a lower leg fracture. Question 92. When taping for turf toe, the primary goal is to: A) Restrict dorsiflexion of the great toe B) Allow full movement C) Increase toe flexibility D) Only support the arch Answer: A Explanation: Turf toe taping restricts dorsiflexion to protect the injured joint. Question 93. Which of the following is an early sign of dehydration? A) Clear urine B) Thirst and dry mouth C) Increased sweating D) Increased energy Answer: B Explanation: Thirst and dry mouth are early warning signs of dehydration. Question 94. Which special test assesses the anterior talofibular ligament? A) Anterior drawer test of the ankle B) Posterior drawer test of the knee C) Thompson test D) Sulcus sign Answer: A Explanation: Ankle anterior drawer test checks the anterior talofibular ligament. Question 95. During a sideline evaluation, the presence of “crepitus” suggests: A) Bone or cartilage injury B) Muscle cramp C) Skin rash D) Normal joint movement Answer: A Explanation: Crepitus often indicates underlying bone or cartilage damage. Question 96. The “Phalen’s test” is used to assess for: A) Ankle instability B) Carpal tunnel syndrome C) Rotator cuff tear D) Patellar instability Answer: B Explanation: Phalen’s test helps diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Question 97. When should an athlete with sickle cell trait be removed from activity? A) When they win the race B) At the first sign of muscle pain, weakness, or fatigue C) If they ask for water
D) At halftime Answer: B Explanation: Immediate removal is critical at the first sign of exertional sickling. Question 98. When managing a nosebleed, packing the nostril is indicated if: A) Bleeding continues despite direct pressure B) Athlete has a headache C) There is no visible blood D) The nose is not injured Answer: A Explanation: If bleeding doesn’t stop with pressure, gentle packing may be used. Question 99. The “Thompson test” is performed by: A) Tapping the patella B) Squeezing the calf and observing foot movement C) Flexing the elbow D) Rotating the shoulder Answer: B Explanation: The Thompson test involves calf squeeze to detect Achilles tendon rupture. Question 100. Which of the following is a sign of a dislocated finger? A) Blue fingernails only B) Obvious deformity and inability to move the joint C) Athlete can make a fist D) Athlete reports no pain Answer: B Explanation: Dislocation presents with deformity and loss of normal movement. Question 101. Which of the following is the best way to prevent equipment-related injuries? A) Ignore manufacturer guidelines B) Regularly inspect and maintain equipment C) Choose the cheapest equipment available D) Allow athletes to modify equipment without supervision Answer: B Explanation: Routine inspection and maintenance prevent equipment failure and related injuries. Question 102. The best method to assess an athlete’s hydration status pre-practice is: A) Color of urine B) Weight of shoes C) Hair color D) Height Answer: A Explanation: Dark urine indicates dehydration, while pale urine suggests adequate hydration. Question 103. A positive “valgus stress test” at the knee at 30 degrees flexion indicates injury to: A) LCL B) ACL C) MCL D) PCL
Answer: C Explanation: Pain or instability means the athlete is not ready to return. Question 110. Which of the following is a sign of exertional heat stroke? A) Profuse sweating and strong pulse B) Hot, dry skin and confusion C) Chills and shivering D) Cool, clammy skin Answer: B Explanation: Heat stroke presents with hot, dry skin and altered mental status. Question 111. Which of the following is a sign of a possible brain injury? A) Headache, confusion, and amnesia B) Bruising on the foot C) Red eyes D) Increased appetite Answer: A Explanation: Headache, confusion, and amnesia are classic signs of brain injury. Question 112. The “Ober’s test” is used to assess tightness in which structure? A) Patellar tendon B) Iliotibial (IT) band C) Achilles tendon D) Deltoid muscle Answer: B Explanation: Ober’s test evaluates IT band tightness. Question 113. The main goal in treating an open fracture is to: A) Realign the bone immediately B) Prevent infection, control bleeding, and immobilize C) Allow athlete to walk D) Apply cold only Answer: B Explanation: Infection control, bleeding management, and immobilization are top priorities. Question 114. The “Tinel’s sign” is used to assess for: A) Ulnar nerve irritation B) ACL injury C) Meniscus tear D) Patellar instability Answer: A Explanation: Tinel’s sign involves tapping over a nerve to elicit tingling from nerve irritation. Question 115. The “Speed’s test” is used to assess which structure? A) Biceps tendon B) Quadriceps tendon C) Hamstring D) Achilles tendon Answer: A Explanation: Speed’s test assesses for biceps tendon pathology.
Question 116. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a suspected cervical spine injury on the field? A) Move the athlete to a more comfortable position B) Stabilize the head and neck and call for EMS C) Remove the helmet immediately D) Apply ice Answer: B Explanation: Immobilization and EMS activation are the first steps for suspected spine injuries. Question 117. The “valgus stress test” at the elbow is used primarily for which population? A) Long-distance runners B) Overhead throwing athletes C) Cyclists D) Swimmers Answer: B Explanation: Overhead athletes are prone to UCL injuries, tested with valgus stress. Question 118. Which of the following is the best way to prevent overuse injuries in youth sports? A) Encourage year-round specialization in one sport B) Ensure adequate rest and cross-training C) Skip warm-ups D) Increase intensity weekly Answer: B Explanation: Rest and cross-training reduce risk for overuse injuries. Question 119. Which of the following is the most important reason to use a mouthguard in contact sports? A) To improve appearance B) To prevent dental and oral injuries C) To help with breathing D) To increase speed Answer: B Explanation: Mouthguards are designed to prevent injuries to teeth and mouth. Question 120. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration during a game? A) Clear urine B) Dry mouth and dizziness C) Increased energy D) Decreased thirst Answer: B Explanation: Dry mouth and dizziness are signs of dehydration. Question 121. Which of the following is a primary purpose of the SOAP note’s “Assessment” section? A) Record the athlete’s past medical history B) Summarize findings and provide a provisional diagnosis C) List vital signs only D) Provide team statistics Answer: B Explanation: The Assessment section summarizes findings and offers a diagnosis.
