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Ultimate CPPA Exam Guide 2026/2027 | Study Notes & Practice Material, Exams of Nursing

Rasmussen College - FloridaNursing

Ultimate CPPA Exam Guide 2026/2027 | Study Notes & Practice Material

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 05/20/2026

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Ultimate CPPA Exam Guide 2026/2027 | Study
Notes & Practice Material
1. What institute worked to facilitate the growing trend of Government agencies'
use of voluntary consensus standards created by the private sector as an
alternative to agency developed standards? (pg.1-2)
a. COTCO
b. OMB Circular A-119
c. NIST
d. ANSI - correct answer-d. ANSI
2. To be classified as a voluntary consensus standard, the standard must be
developed within what? (pg.1-2)
a. criteria and process
b. timeframe
c. specifications
d. practice and methods - correct answer-a. criteria and process
3. When the Work Item (draft standard) has been completed, the individual or
Task Group will send it to __________. (pg.1-4)
a. COTCO
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Ultimate CPPA Exam Guide 2026/2027 | Study

Notes & Practice Material

  1. What institute worked to facilitate the growing trend of Government agencies' use of voluntary consensus standards created by the private sector as an alternative to agency developed standards? (pg.1-2) a. COTCO b. OMB Circular A- 119 c. NIST d. ANSI - correct answer- d. ANSI
  2. To be classified as a voluntary consensus standard, the standard must be developed within what? (pg.1-2) a. criteria and process b. timeframe c. specifications d. practice and methods - correct answer- a. criteria and process
  3. When the Work Item (draft standard) has been completed, the individual or Task Group will send it to __________. (pg.1-4) a. COTCO

b. ASTM c. E-53 Chairperson d. ANSI - correct answer- b. ASTM

  1. OMB Circular A119 states that voluntary consensus standard bodies are "domestic or international organizations which develop, establish, coordinate, and __________ using agreed-upon procedures." (pg.1-2) a. Process b. Openness c. Plan d. Encompass - correct answer- c. Plan Having a standard to reference during a review or audit will provide a strong foundation to ensure what? (pg.1-5) a. compliance b. evidence c. traceability d. completed procedures - correct answer- a. compliance What is the Requirements Determination process of identifying and justifying property? (pg. 2-1) a. job levels and expenditures b. expenditures ratios and misappropriations c. supply and demand d. future property acquisitions and providing the necessary funds - correct answer- d. future property acquisitions and providing the necessary funds

During creation of the final budget, a list of all approved capital projects is sent to each respective department. There are key data elements to be included when purchase requirements are initiated: Purchase account key (charge numbers), asset category, and _______________. (pg. 2-4) a. Substitutions b. Creation of the final budget c. Depreciation expense account number d. Prioritization - correct answer- c. Depreciation expense account number

  1. A key characteristic of a consumable is that it is considered to be "consumed" at the point of ___________. (pg. 3-2) a. receipt b. installation c. issue d. replacement - correct answer- c. issue
  2. What is an example of an expendable item and which would be considered consumable? (pg. 3-2) a. paper products b. drill bits c. cordless drill d. small tools - correct answer- a. paper products Some of the advantages of storing consumables in a Central Warehouse are: dedicated professionals, discounts due to quantity buying, and ____________. (pg. 3-2)

a. cost of the facility b. manpower c. cost of the equipment needed d. time saving to end-users - correct answer- d. time saving to end-users

  1. What type of consumable stock does not lend themselves to ABC plan control, but should be kept in a controlled area and inventoried often? (pg. 3-5 and 3 - 6) a. Pilferable items b. Items with a shelf-life c. Insurance items d. Inventory accuracy - correct answer- a. Pilferable items When doing an ABC type inventory, Category "C" accounts for approximately what percentage of stock records? (pg. 3-6) a. 10% b. 75% c. 100% d. 50% - correct answer- b. 75%
  2. What is the most important aspect concerning the property manager in dealing with contracts? (pg. 4-2) a. Knowing who to ask questions about the contract b. Knowing how to interpret the contract for the benefit of the organization c. Knowing where to look in the records d. Knowing how to ask the Management - correct answer- b. Knowing how to interpret the contract for the benefit of the organization

to the Contracting Officer that the costs to complete the contract will exceed the estimate target. (pg. 4-5) a. 50% b. 60% c. 75% d. 95% - correct answer- c. 75%

  1. For most organizations, the business process includes Strategic Planning, Resource planning, Asset acquisition, and _____________. (pg. 5 2) a. Investment Strategies b. Budgeting c. Receiving d. Resource Planning - correct answer- b. Budgeting
  2. Using state-of-the-art technology and employing the preferred or best business practice is an example of how an organization can operate efficiently and effectively and add __________. (pg. 5-3) a. Value b. Security c. Prestige d. Knowledge - correct answer- a. Value
  3. Some goals that could be used for Property Management are: Safety, Cycle time, Quality, Teamwork and __________. (pg. 5-4) a. Measurable b. Authority

c. Cost d. Inventory - correct answer- c. Cost

  1. What would be a value-added task for your Property System? (pg. 5-5) a. Create sound procedures b. Change of management philosophy c. Correct problems before they occur d. Increase Storage - correct answer- a. Create sound procedures
  2. Property Management goals should be measurable and ____________. (pg. 5-

a. Secure b. Timebound c. Quality d. Valued - correct answer- b. Timebound

  1. The possibility of various outcomes from a given set of circumstances is a definition of which term? (pg. 6-1) a. Destiny b. Values c. Risk d. Strategy - correct answer- c. Risk
  2. Loss projections based on probability distributions and statistics, frequently developed using actuarial techniques, is called what? (pg. 6-2)
  1. What is the foundation of an asset management review? (pg. 7-2) a. Analyze defects b. Written procedures c. Testing attributes d. Audit Objectives - correct answer- b. Written procedures
  2. The ultimate objective of an audit is to determine whether or not the asset management system is what? (pg. 7-3) a. Complete Audit b. Impartial c. Working properly d. Timeframe - correct answer- c. Working properly
  3. When should conclusions with opinions and reports be based exclusively on evidence obtained and assembled in accordance with what? (pg. 7-5) a. Auditor's expressed opinion b. Auditors work papers ' c. Auditing standards applied d. Management's evaluation of the audit - correct answer- c. Auditing standards applied
  4. An audit should state the audit's what? (pg. 7-3) a. Objectives b. Roadmap c. Population d. Observation - correct answer- a. Objectives
  1. Auditors must render judgment of the conclusions fairly, _________ or external influences. (pg. 7-10) a. Conclusions b. Without bias c. Materiality d. Causality - correct answer- b. Without bias
  2. Valuation is the act or practice of establishing the degree of relative worth, utility or importance of an item. Establishing value is essential for various reasons, including which of the following? (pg. 8-1) a. Depreciation b. Objective c. Determine return on investment d. To validate book value - correct answer- a. Depreciation
  3. What standards are used by appraisers? (pg. 8-2) a. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) b. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) c. Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) d. Fair Market Value (FMV) - correct answer- c. Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP)
  4. Valuation is based on characteristics of an asset and relevant information. This is even more important when an individual performing a valuation is determining what? (pg. 8-2)
  1. What statutory definition specifically excludes solid or dissolved materials in sewage? (pg. 9- 5) a. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act b. Environmental Protection Agency c. Clean Water Act d. Hazardous Materials - correct answer- c. Clean Water Act
  2. By the mid-1970's it became apparent that the Solid Waste Disposal Act (SWDA) of 1965 was in need of being revised and expanded to include a detailed nationwide program for the management of hazardous waste. In 1976, Congress enacted: (pg. 9-5) a. RCRA b. CERCLA c. TSCA d. CWA - correct answer- a. RCRA
  3. When real property is acquired, it may be difficult to determine how the property was used and managed over the years (known as prior use). To make this determination, a(n) _______________________ must take place: (pg. 9-8) a. Assessment and Valuation Review b. Historical Property Appraisal c. Environmental Site Assessment d. Waste Management Evaluation - correct answer- c. Environmental Site Assessment
  4. ______________ waste is hazardous because its inherent properties satisfy one of the following tests: ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity, or toxicity. (pg. 9-5)

a. Solid b. Characteristic c. Industrial d. Universal - correct answer- b. Characteristic

  1. What qualifications does a Fleet Manager need to be proficient at their work? (pg. 10-2) a. Coordinate fleet activities b. Life cycle costs c. Change the Batteries d. Roadside assistance - correct answer- a. Coordinate fleet activities
  2. There are six factors in analyzing fleet efficiencies: durability, reliability, environment, initial cost, operating costs, and what? (pg. 10-4) a. Operating costs b. Life cycle costs c. Fuel costs d. Disposal costs - correct answer- b. Life cycle costs
  3. What US Government Department designates alternative fuels? (pg.10-5) a. GSA b. DOT c. DOE d. DOS - correct answer- c. DOE
  4. What measures in-house repairs against vendor-supplied repairs? (pg. 10-6)
  1. What segment of the U.S Government implements the Arms Export Control Act (AECA)? (pg. 11-3) a. The Department of State b. ITAR (International Traffic in Arms c. Department of Commerce d. Department of Energy - correct answer- a. The Department of State
  2. Who implements trade embargoes and sanctions based on U.S. foreign policy and national security goals? (pg. 11-3) a. Department of Commerce b. U. S. Customs c. Nuclear of Energy d. Department of Treasury - correct answer- d. Department of Treasury
  3. What agency regulates exports of nuclear equipment and materials? (pg. 11-4) a. The Nuclear Regulatory Commission b. The Commerce Control c. The U.S. Munitions List d. Homeland Security - correct answer- a. The Nuclear Regulatory Commission