Understanding Abnormal Behavior 10th Ed Test Bank Questions & Answers, Exams of Nursing

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Nursing Board Practice Test Compilation

Contents

NURSING PRACTICE I: FOUNDATION OF NURSING

PRACTICE .......................................................................... 4

NURSING PRACTICE II ..................................................... 15

NURSING PRACTICE III .................................................... 26

NURSING PRACTICE IV .................................................... 36

NURSING PRACTICE V ..................................................... 46

TEST I - Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice ..... 56

Answers and Rationale – Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice ......................................................... 66

TEST II - Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child ........................................................... 74

Answers and Rationale – Community Health Nursing

ANSWERS AND RATIONALE – MATERNAL AND CHILD

HEALTH ..................................................................... 366

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING ...................................... 372

ANSWERS AND RATIONALE – MEDICAL SURGICAL

NURSING................................................................... 377

PSYCHIATRIC NURSING ................................................. 379

ANSWERS AND RATIONALE – PSYCHIATRIC NURSING

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PART 1 ......................... 387

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PART 2 ......................... 392

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PART 2 ...................................................... 397

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PART 3 ......................... 401

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PART 3 ...................................................... 405

MATERNITY NURSING Part 1 ........................................ 409

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for MATERNITY NURSING Part 1 ........................................................................ 418

MATERNITY NURSING Part 2 ........................................ 428

Answer for maternity part 2 ..................................... 433

PEDIATRIC NURSING ..................................................... 434

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for PEDIATRIC NURSING ................................................................................ 439

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING Part 1 ........................ 444

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING Part 2 ........................ 454

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING Part 1 ........................... 475

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING Part 1 ........................................................ 479

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING Part 2 ........................... 481

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING Part 2 ....................... 485

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING Part 2 ........................................................ 489

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING Part 3 ........................... 491

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING Part 3 ........................................................ 495

PSYCHIATRIC NURSING Part 1 ...................................... 497

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for PSYCHIATRIC NURSING Part 1 ........................................................................ 502

PSYCHIATRIC NURSING Part 2 ...................................... 504

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for PSYCHIATRIC NURSING Part 2 ........................................................................ 509

PSYCHIATRIC NURSING Part 3 ...................................... 512

ANSWERS and RATIONALES for PSYCHIATRIC NURSING Part 3 ........................................................................ 516

PROFESSIONAL ADJUSTMENT ...................................... 519

LEADERSHIP and MANAGEMENT ................................. 522

NURSING RESEARCH Part 1 .......................................... 532

NURSING RESEARCH Part 2 .......................................... 542

Nursing Research Suggested Answer Key ................. 546

b. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 15 seconds

10. The rationale in using the Z track technique in an intramuscular injection is: a. It decreases the leakage of discolouring and irritating medication into the subcutaneous tissues b. It will allow a faster absorption of the medication c. The Z track technique prevent irritation of the muscle d. It is much more convenient for the nurse

SITUATION: A Client was rushed to the emergency room and you are his attending nurse. You are performing a vital sign assessment.

11. All of the following are correct methods in assessment of the blood pressure EXCEPT: a. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison b. Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff’s sound c. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated d. Observe procedures for infection control
12. You attached a pulse oximeter to the client. You know that the purpose is to: a. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion b. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion c. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti- hypertensive medications d. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops
13. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, The client is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be: a. inconsistent b. low systolic and high diastolic c. higher than what the reading should be d. lower than what the reading should be
14. Through the client’s health history, you gather

that the patient smokes and drinks coffee. When taking the blood pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should the nurse wait before taking the client’s blood pressure for accurate reading? a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 5 minutes

15. While the client has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is shining on the area where the oximeter is. Your action will be to: a. Set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter b. Do nothing since there is no identified problem c. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bedsheet d. Change the location of the sensor every four hours
16. The nurse finds it necessary to recheck the blood pressure reading. In case of such re assessment, the nurse should wait for a period of: a. 15 seconds b. 1 to 2 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes
17. If the arm is said to be elevated when taking the blood pressure, it will create a: a. False high reading b. False low reading c. True false reading d. Indeterminate
18. You are to assessed the temperature of the client the next morning and found out that he ate ice cream. How many minutes should you wait before assessing the client’s oral temperature? a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes
19. When auscultating the client’s blood pressure the nurse hears the following: From 150 mmHg to 130 mmHg: Silence, Then: a thumping sound continuing down to 100 mmHg; muffled sound continuing down to 80 mmHg and then silence.

What is the client’s blood pressure? a. 130/ b. 150/ c. 100/ d. 150/

20. In a client with a previous blood pressure of 130/80 4 hours ago, how long will it take to release the blood pressure cuff to obtain an accurate reading? a. 10-20 seconds b. 30-45 seconds c. 1-1.5 minutes d. 3-3.5 minutes

Situation: Oral care is an important part of hygienic practices and promoting client comfort.

21. An elderly client, 84 years old, is unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive dryness and presence of sores. Which of the following is BEST to use for oral care? a. lemon glycerine b. Mineral oil c. hydrogen peroxide d. Normal saline solution
22. When performing oral care to an unconscious client, which of the following is a special consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into the lungs? a. Put the client on a sidelying position with head of bed lowered b. Keep the client dry by placing towel under the chin c. Wash hands and observes appropriate infection control d. Clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and an orderly progression
23. The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth b. reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which irritate the buccal mucosa c. improves client’s appearance and self- confidence d. improves appetite and taste of food
24. A possible problem while providing oral care to unconscious clients is the risk of fluid aspiration

to lungs. This can be avoided by: a. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with mouthwash to avoid rinsing the buccal cavity b. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton swabs c. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton washcloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue, lips and ums d. suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity

25. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is mouth breathing most of the time. This causes dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is recommended for the client and in addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by using: a. salt solution b. petroleum jelly c. water d. mentholated ointment

Situation – Ensuring safety before, during and after a diagnostic procedure is an important responsibility of the nurse.

26. To help Fernan better tolerate the bronchoscopy, you should instruct him to practice which of the following prior to the procedure? a. Clenching his fist every 2 minutes b. Breathing in and out through the nose with his mouth open c. Tensing the shoulder muscles while lying on his back d. Holding his breath periodically for 30 seconds
27. Following a bronchoscopy, which of the following complains to Fernan should be noted as a possible complication: a. Nausea and vomiting b. Shortness of breath and laryngeal stridor c. Blood tinged sputum and coughing d. Sore throat and hoarseness
28. Immediately after bronchoscopy, you instructed Fernan to: a. Exercise the neck muscles b. Refrain from coughing and talking

38. Where would the nurse tape Eileen’s indwelling catheter in order to reduce urethral irritation? a. to the patient’s inner thigh b. to the patient’ buttocks c. to the patient’s lower thigh d. to the patient lower abdomen
39. Which of the following menu is appropriate for one with low sodium diet? a. instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea b. ham and cheese sandwich, fresh fruits and vegetables c. white chicken sandwich, vegetable salad and tea d. canned soup, potato salad, and diet soda
40. How will you prevent ascending infection to Eileen who has an indwelling catheter? a. see to it that the drainage tubing touches the level of the urine b. change he catheter every eight hours c. see to it that the drainage tubing does not touch the level of the urine d. clean catheter may be used since urethral meatus is not a sterile area

Situation: Hormones are secreted by the various glands in the body. Basic knowledge of the endocrine system is necessary.

41. Somatocrinin or the Growth hormone releasing hormone is secreted by the: a. Hypothalamus b. Posterior pituitary gland c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Thyroid gland
42. All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland except: a. Somatotropin/Growth hormone b. Thyroid stimulating hormone c. Follicle stimulating hormone d. Gonadotropin hormone releasing hormone
43. All of the following hormones are hormones secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland except: a. Vasopressin b. Anti-diuretic hormone c. Oxytocin d. Growth hormone
44. Calcitonin, a hormone necessary for calcium

regulation is secreted in the: a. Thyroid gland b. Parathyroid gland c. Hypothalamus d. Anterior pituitary gland

45. While Parathormone, a hormone that negates the effect of calcitonin is secreted by the: a. Thyroid gland b. Parathyroid gland c. Hypothalamus d. Anterior pituitary gland

Situation: The staff nurse supervisor requests all the staff nurses to “brainstorm” and learn ways to instruct diabetic clients on self-administration of insulin. She wants to ensure that there are nurses available daily to do health education classes.

46. The plan of the nurse supervisor is an example of a. in service education process b. efficient management of human resources c. increasing human resources d. primary prevention
47. When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the clients care to the nurse-aide who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra a. makes the assignment to teach the staff member b. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those tasks c. does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide d. most know how to perform task delegated
48. Connie, the new nurse, appears tired and sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had six weeks ago when she started the job. The nurse supervisor should a. empathize with the nurse and listen to her b. tell her to take the day off c. discuss how she is adjusting to her new job d. ask about her family life
49. Process of formal negotiations of working conditions between a group of registered nurses and employer is

a. grievance b. arbitration c. collective bargaining d. strike

50. You are attending a certification on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and required by the hospital employing you. This is a. professional course towards credits b. in-service education c. advance training d. continuing education

Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient chart is your responsibility.

51. Which of the following is not a legally binding document but nevertheless very important in the care of all patients in any health care setting? a. Bill of rights as provided in the Philippine constitution b. Scope of nursing practice as defined by RA 9173 c. Board of nursing resolution adopting the code of ethics d. Patient’s bill of rights
52. A nurse gives a wrong medication to the client. Another nurse employed by the same hospital as a risk manager will expect to receive which of the following communication? a. Incident report b. Nursing kardex c. Oral report d. Complain report
53. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of an informed consent can lead to which of the following charges? a. Fraud b. Harassment c. Assault and battery d. Breach of confidentiality
54. Which of the following is the essence of informed consent? a. It should have a durable power of attorney b. It should have coverage from an insurance company c. It should respect the client’s freedom from coercion

d. It should disclose previous diagnosis, prognosis and alternative treatments available for the client

55. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks that can be performed by a subordinate. The RN should always be accountable and should not lose his accountability. Which of the following is a role included in delegation? a. The RN must supervise all delegated tasks b. After a task has been delegated, it is no longer a responsibility of the RN c. The RN is responsible and accountable for the delegated task in adjunct with the delegate d. Follow up with a delegated task is necessary only if the assistive personnel is not trustworthy

Situation: When creating your lesson plan for cerebrovascular disease or STROKE. It is important to include the risk factors of stroke.

56. The most important risk factor is: a. Cigarette smoking b. binge drinking c. Hypertension d. heredity
57. Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology or cause of stroke. The types of stroke based on cause are the following EXCEPT: a. Embolic stroke b. diabetic stroke c. Hemorrhagic stroke d. thrombotic stroke
58. Hemmorhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually when the person is active. All are causes of hemorrhage, EXCEPT: a. phlebitis b. damage to blood vessel c. trauma d. aneurysm
59. The nurse emphasizes that intravenous drug abuse carries a high risk of stroke. Which drug is closely linked to this? a. Amphetamines b. shabu c. Cocaine d. Demerol

c. There is a continuous bubbling in the waterseal d. The suction control bottle has a continuous bubbling

70. In a client with pleural effusion, the nurse is instructing appropriate breathing technique. Which of the following is included in the teaching? a. Breath normally b. Hold the breath after each inspiration for 1 full minute c. Practice abdominal breathing d. Inhale slowly and hold the breath for 3 to 5 seconds after each inhalation

SITUATION: Health care delivery system affects the health status of every filipino. As a Nurse, Knowledge of this system is expected to ensure quality of life.

71. When should rehabilitation commence? a. The day before discharge b. When the patient desires c. Upon admission d. 24 hours after discharge
72. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital? a. Hospital as a center to prevent and control infection b. Program for smokers c. Program for alcoholics and drug addicts d. Hospital Wellness Center
73. Which makes nursing dynamic? a. Every patient is a unique physical, emotional, social and spiritual being b. The patient participate in the overall nursing care plan c. Nursing practice is expanding in the light of modern developments that takes place d. The health status of the patient is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognizant and responsive to these changes
74. Prevention is an important responsibility of the nurse in: a. Hospitals b. Community c. Workplace d. All of the above 75. This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees for a fixed periodic payment. a. Health Maintenance Organization b. Medicare c. Philippine Health Insurance Act d. Hospital Maintenance Organization

Situation: Nursing ethics is an important part of the nursing profession. As the ethical situation arises, so is the need to have an accurate and ethical decision making.

76. The purpose of having a nurses’ code of ethics is: a. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice b. identify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations c. To help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses d. To define the roles and functions of the health care givers, nurses, clients
77. The principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life, biology and the health professionals is referred to as: a. Morality b. Religion c. Values d. Bioethics
78. A subjective feeling about what is right or wrong is said to be: a. Morality b. Religion c. Values d. Bioethics
79. Values are said to be the enduring believe about a worth of a person, ideas and belief. If Values are going to be a part of a research, this is categorized under: a. Qualitative b. Experimental c. Quantitative d. Non Experimental
80. The most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to: a. Act only when advised that the action is ethically sound

b. Not takes sides, remain neutral and fair c. Assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team d. Be accountable for his or her own actions

81. Why is there an ethical dilemma? a. the choices involved do not appear to be clearly right or wrong b. a client’s legal right co-exist with the nurse’s professional obligation c. decisions has to be made based on societal norms. d. decisions has to be mad quickly, often under stressful conditions
82. According to the code of ethics, which of the following is the primary responsibility of the nurse? a. Assist towards peaceful death b. Health is a fundamental right c. Promotion of health, prevention of illness, alleviation of suffering and restoration of health d. Preservation of health at all cost
83. Which of the following is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses, except: a. The Philippine Nurses Association for being the accredited professional organization was given the privilege to formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses which the Board of Nursing promulgated b. Code for Nurses was first formulated in 1982 published in the Proceedings of the Third Annual Convention of the PNA House of Delegates c. The present code utilized the Code of Good Governance for the Professions in the Philippines d. Certificates of Registration of registered nurses may be revoked or suspended for violations of any provisions of the Code of Ethics.
84. Violation of the code of ethics might equate to the revocation of the nursing license. Who revokes the license? a. PRC b. PNA c. DOH d. BON 85. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of nursing responsibility and accountability? a. Human rights of clients, regardless of creed and gender b. The privilege of being a registered professional nurse c. Health, being a fundamental right of every individual d. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes

Situation: As a profession, nursing is dynamic and its practice is directed by various theoretical models. To demonstrate caring behaviour, the nurse applies various nursing models in providing quality nursing care.

86. When you clean the bedside unit and regularly attend to the personal hygiene of the patient as well as in washing your hands before and after a procedure and in between patients, you indent to facilitate the body’s reparative processes. Which of the following nursing theory are you applying in the above nursing action? a. Hildegard Peplau b. Dorothea Orem c. Virginia Henderson d. Florence Nightingale
87. A communication skill is one of the important competencies expected of a nurse. Interpersonal process is viewed as human to human relationship. This statement is an application of whose nursing model? a. Joyce Travelbee b. Martha Rogers c. Callista Roy d. Imogene King
88. The statement “the health status of an individual is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognizant and responsive to these changes” best explains which of the following facts about nursing? a. Dynamic b. Client centred c. Holistic d. Art
89. Virginia Henderson professes that the goal of nursing is to work interdependently with other health care working in assisting the patient to

b. Medicine preparation is correct c. Position of the client is correct d. Consent is signed by relative and physician

99. As a nurse, you know that the position for June before thoracentesis is: a. Orthopneic b. Low fowlers c. Knee-chest d. Sidelying position on the affected side
100. Which of the following anaesthetics drug is used for thoracentesis? a. Procaine 2% b. Demerol 75 mg c. Valium 250 mg d. Phenobartbital 50 mg

NURSING PRACTICE II

Situation: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who has been married for 6 months. She consults you for guidance in relation with her menstrual cycle and her desire to get pregnant.

1. She wants to know the length of her menstrual cycle. Her previous menstrual period is October 22 to 26. Her LMB is November 21. Which of the following number of days will be your correct response? A. 29 B. 28 C. 30 D. 31
2. You advised her to observe and record the signs of Ovulation. Which of the following signs will she likely note down? 1. A 1 degree Fahrenheit rise in basal body temperature 2. Cervical mucus becomes copious and clear 3. One pound increase in weight 4. Mittelschmerz A. 1, 2, 4 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 3, 4
3. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her basal temperature every day, which of the following instructions is incorrect? A. If coitus has occurred; this should be reflected in the chart B. It is best to have coitus on the evening following a drop in BBT to become pregnant C. Temperature should be taken immediately after waking and before getting out of bed D. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase
4. She reports an increase in BBT on December 16. Which hormone brings about this change in her BBT? A. Estrogen B. Gonadotropine C. Progesterone

D. Follicle stimulating hormone

5. The following month, Mariah suspects she is pregnant. Her urine is positive for Human chorionic gonadotrophin. Which structure produces Hcg? A. Pituitary gland B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo C. Uterine deciduas D. Ovarian follicles

Situation: Mariah came back and she is now pregnant.

6. At 5 month gestation, which of the following fetal development would probably be achieve? A. Fetal movement are felt by Mariah B. Vernix caseosa covers the entire body C. Viable if delivered within this period D. Braxton hicks contractions are observed
7. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah. Now At 5 month gestation, What level of the abdomen can the fundic height be palpated? A. Symphysis pubis B. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process C. Midpoint between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus D. Umbilicus
8. She worries about her small breasts, thinking that she probably will not be able to breastfeed her baby. Which of the following responses of the nurse is correct? A. “The size of your breast will not affect your lactation” B. “You can switch to bottle feeding” C. “You can try to have exercise to increase the size of your breast” D. “Manual expression of milk is possible”
9. She tells the nurse that she does not take milk regularly. She claims that she does not want to gain too much weight during her pregnancy. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority? A. Potential self-esteem disturbance related to physiologic changes in pregnancy B. Ineffective individual coping related to physiologic changes in pregnancy C. Fear related to the effects of pregnancy D. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional

B. Five years C. Twelve months D. 10 years

19. Dana asks about female condoms. Which of the following is true with regards to female condoms? A. The hormone the condom releases might cause mild weight gain B. She should insert the condom before any penile penetration C. She should coat the condom with spermicide before use D. Female condoms, unlike male condoms, are reusable
20. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. What makes her a good candidate for GIFT? A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized ova can be implanted on them B. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to rule out RH incompatibility C. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be injected through the cervix into it D. Her husband is taking sildenafil, so all sperms will be motile

Situation: Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this particular population group.

21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer? A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked. C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go.
22. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when: A. A woman has no uterus B. A woman has no children C. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year D. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months 23. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility because: A. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes B. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen C. The ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen D. Pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH levels 24. Lilia is scheduled to have a hysterosalphingogram. Which of the following instructions would you give her regarding this procedure? A. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months after the procedure B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present C. Many women experience mild bleeding as an after effect D. She may feel some cramping when the dye is inserted 25. Lilia’s cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Lorena’s specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena? A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix B. Donor sperm are injected intra- abdominally into each ovary C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency D. The husband’s sperm is administered intravenously weekly

Situation: You are assigned to take care of a group of patients across the lifespan.

26. Pain in the elder persons requires careful assessment because they: A. experienced reduce sensory perception B. have increased sensory perception C. are expected to experience chronic pain D. have a decreased pain threshold
27. Administration of analgesics to the older persons requires careful patient assessment because older people: A. are more sensitive to drugs

B. have increased hepatic, renal and gastrointestinal function C. have increased sensory perception D. mobilize drugs more rapidly

28. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence because of: A. increased glomerular filtration B. decreased bladder capacity C. diuretic use D. dilated urethra
29. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly? A. decreased breath sounds with crackles B. pain C. fever D. change in mental status
30. Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma patient: A. circulation, airway, breathing B. airway, breathing, disability (neurologic) C. disability (neurologic), airway, breathing D. airway, breathing, circulation
31. Preschoolers are able to see things from which of the following perspectives? A. Their peers B. Their own and their mother’s C. Their own and their caregivers’ D. Only their own
32. In conflict management, the win-win approach occurs when: A. There are two conflicts and the parties agree to each one B. Each party gives in on 50% of the disagreements making up the conflict C. Both parties involved are committed to solving the conflict D. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal system and the parties win
33. According to the social-interactional perspective of child abuse and neglect, four factors place the family members at risk for abuse. These risk factors are the family members at risk for abuse. These risk factors are the family itself, the caregiver, the child, and A. The presence of a family crisis B. The national emphasis on sex C. Genetics

D. Chronic poverty

34. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you most likely find when assessing and infant with Arnold-Chiari malformation? A. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of sensation in the legs, and restlessness B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex, and respiratory distress C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant, and an arching of the back D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea, and vomiting.
35. A parent calls you and frantically reports that her child has gotten into her famous ferrous sulfate pills and ingested a number of these pills. Her child is now vomiting, has bloody diarrhea, and is complaining of abdominal pain. You will tell the mother to: A. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and get the child to the emergency room B. Relax because these symptoms will pass and the child will be fine C. Administer syrup of ipecac D. Call the poison control center
36. A client says she heard from a friend that you stop having periods once you are on the “pill”. The most appropriate response would be: A. “The pill prevents the uterus from making such endometrial lining, that is why periods may often be scant or skipped occasionally.” B. “If your friend has missed her period, she should stop taking the pills and get a pregnancy test as soon as possible.” C. “The pill should cause a normal menstrual period every month. It sounds like your friend has not been taking the pills properly.” D. “Missed period can be very dangerous and may lead to the formation of precancerous cells.”
37. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of the following symptoms as a primary manifestation of Hirschsprung’s disease? A. A fine rash over the trunk B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth