University SET physics 11, Study notes of Physics

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Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) .........................................
(Name) ................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................
(Name) ................................................
Seat No.
(In figures as in Admit Card)
Seat No. ..............................................................
(In words)
OMR Sheet No.
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Paper-III
PHYSICS
DEC - 32313
M
Test Booklet No.
iz'uif=dk ÿ-
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory,
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
(i)To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii)Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
order or any other discrepancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii)After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
ABD
fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk
1. ifj{kkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dksiÚ;kr fygkok-
rlsp vki.kkal fnysY;k mŸkjif=dspk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok-
2. lnj iz'uif=dsr 75 cgqi;kZ;h iz'u vkgsr- izR;sd iz'ukl nksu xq.k
vkgsr- ;k iz'uif=dsrhy loZ iz'u lksMfo.ks vfuok;Z vkgs- lnjps iz'u
gs ;k fo"k;kP;k laiw.kZ vH;klÿekoj vk/kkfjr vkgsr-
3. ijh{kk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5
feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vo'; riklwu
igkO;kr-
(i)iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=dsoj ykoysys lhy m?kMkos-
lhy ulysyh fdaok lhy m?kMysyh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s-
(ii)ifgY;k i`"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i`"Bs
rlsp iz'uif=dsrhy ,dw.k iz'ukaph la[;k iMrkˇwu igkoh-
i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpk
ÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dk
lq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zos{kdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljh
iz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywu
feˇ.kkj ukgh rlsp osˇgh ok<owu feˇ.kkj ukgh ;kph œi;k
fo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh-
(iii)ojhyizek.ks loZ iMrkˇwu ifgY;kuarjp iz'uif=dsoj
vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dspk uacj fygkok-
4. izR;sd iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyh
vkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ks
dkˇk@fuˇk djkok-
mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj-
5. ;k iz'uif=dsrhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsrp n'kZokohr-
brj fBdk.kh fyghysyh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj ukghr-
6. vkr fnysY;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr-
7. iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh tksMysY;k dksÚ;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos-
8. tj vki.k vks-,e-vkj- oj uewn dsysY;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dksBsgh
uko] vklu ÿekad] Qksu uacj fdaok vksˇ[k iVsy v'kh dks.krhgh [kw.k
dsysyh vk<ˇwu vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"kspk okij fdaok brj xSjekxk±pk
voyac dsY;kl fo|kF;kZyk ijh{ksl vik= Bjfo.;kr ;sbZy-
9. ijh{kk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ewˇ vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;Zos{kdkadMs
ijr dj.ks vko';d vkgs- rFkkih] iz'uif=dk o vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsph
f}rh; izr vkiY;kcjkscj us.;kl fo|kF;k±uk ijokuxh vkgs-
10. Q‰ fuˇÓk fdaok dkˇÓk ckWy isupkp okij djkok-
11. dWyD;qysVj fdaok ykWx Vscy okij.;kl ijokuxh ukgh-
12. pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh-
ABD
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Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75

Signature and Name of Invigilator

  1. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................
  2. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................

Seat No. (In figures as in Admit Card) Seat No. .............................................................. (In words) OMR Sheet No. (To be filled by the Candidate)

Paper-III

PHYSICS

DEC - 32313

M

Test Booklet No.

iz'uif=dk ÿ-

  1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided^ Instructions for the Candidates
  2. on the top of this page.This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question will carrycovering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options). two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory,
  3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows : ( i ) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off thepaper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept ( ii ) a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet. Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ questions or questions repeated or not in serialorder or any other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct booklet should be obtainedfrom the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The same ( iii ) may please be noted. After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
  4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),should be entered on this Test Booklet. (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response.
  5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place OMR
  6. other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.Read instructions given inside carefully. 7.8. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
  7. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at theend of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowedto carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
  8. conclusion of examination. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
    1. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

A B D

  1. ifj{kkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dksi^ fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk Ú;kr fygkok-
  2. rlsp vki.kkal fnysY;k mŸkjif=dspk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok-lnj iz'uif=dsr 75 cgqi;kZ;h iz'u vkgsr- izR;sd iz'ukl nksu xq.k vkgsr- ;k iz'uif=dsrhy loZ iz'u lksMfo.ks vfuok;Z vkgs- lnjps iz'u
  3. gs ;k fo"k;kP;k laiw.kZ vH;klÿekoj vk/kkfjr vkgsr-ijh{kk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5 feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vo'; riklwuigkO;kr- ( i ) iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=dsoj ykoysys lhy m?kMkos-lhy ulysyh fdaok lhy m?kMysyh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s- ( ii ) ifgY;k i"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i"Bsrlsp iz'uif=dsrhy ,dw.k iz'ukaph la[;k iMrkˇwu igkoh- i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpkÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dk lq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zos{kdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljhiz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywu feˇ.kkj ukgh rlsp osˇgh ok<owu feˇ.kkj ukgh ;kph œi;kfo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh- ( iii ) ojhyizek.ks loZ iMrkˇwu ifgY;kuarjp iz'uif=dsojvks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dspk uacj fygkok-
  4. izR;sd iz'uklkBhvkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ks (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyh dkˇk@fuˇk djkok- mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj-
  5. ;k iz'uif=dsrhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs brj fBdk.kh fyghysyh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj ukghr- vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsrp n'kZokohr-
    1. vkr fnysY;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr-iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh tksMysY;k dksÚ;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos-
  6. tj vki.k vks-,e-vkj- oj uewn dsysY;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dksBsghuko] vklu ÿekad] Qksu uacj fdaok vksˇ[k iVsy v'kh dks.krhgh [kw.k dsysyh vk<ˇwu vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"kspk okij fdaok brj xSjekxk±pkvoyac dsY;kl fo|kF;kZyk ijh{ksl vik= Bjfo.;kr ;sbZy-
  7. ijh{kk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ewˇ vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;Zos{kdkadMsijr dj.ks vko';d vkgs- rFkkih] iz'uif=dk o vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsph
  8. f}rh; izr vkiY;kcjkscj us.;kl fo|kF;k±uk ijokuxh vkgs- Q‰ fuˇÓk fdaok dkˇÓk ckWy isupkp okij djkok-
    1. dWyD;qysVj fdaok ykWx Vscy okij.;kl ijokuxh ukgh-pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh-

A B D

  1. y ( x ) satisfies the differential

equation. 2 2 2 0

d y dy (^) y dx^ −^ dx +^ = One solution of this equation is A ex. The second linearly independent solution is : (A) ex (B) xex (C) xe–x (D) x^2 + x

  1. f z ( )^^ =^ z (^2) (^1) + a 2 ,^ a >^0. The integral

of f ( z ) over a contour comprising the real axis a semi-circle of infinite radius in the upper half plane is :

(A) (^2) a^ π

(B) (^2) a^ π i

(C) (^) a^ π

(D) zero

  1. Consider a simple pendulum oscillating in a plane. The pendulum bob has mass m and is suspended by string of length ‘ l ’. If θ is the angle made by the string with the vertical, then the kinetic energy of the system in plane polar co- ordinates is given by :

(A) T^ =^12 ml^2

(B) T = mgl cosθ

(C) T^ =^12 ml^2 θ&^2

(D) T^ =^12 m θ&^2

  1. The conjugate momentum p θ of a simple pendulum of mass m suspended from a support by a string of length l is given by : (A) (^) ml θ& (B) (^) m θ& (C) (^) ml^2 θ& (D) (^) ml^2

5 [P.T.O.

  1. If two particles of equal mass m

collide elastically with each other

and scatter off, then the following

statement is correct in the center of

mass frame :

(A) the velocities of the two particles

are interchanged after the

collision

(B) the magnitudes of the velocities

of the two particles are

unchanged by the collision

(C) the two particles move off

together after the collision

(D) the particle with the larger

velocity comes to a rest,

whereas the other particle

stays in motion

  1. If a particle of mass m moves under

the action of a gravitational potential

V( ) MG r = − (^) R , then the following

statement is correct :

(A) The motion of the system is

confined to a plane

(B) The energy of the system is the

only conserved quantity

(C) The motion of the particle is

always bounded

(D) There are no initial conditions

for which the particle can be

execute uniform circular

motion

7 [P.T.O.

  1. The value of operator → r^. → p^ −→ p^ .→ r

in quantum mechanics is : (A) (^) i h (B) zero (C) 3 i h

(D) ^ ∂∂ x +^ ∂∂ y + ∂∂ z 

  1. The ground state energy of a

quantum mechanical system is

always :

(A) Suppressed (lowered) due to second order perturbation

(B) Suppressed (lowered) due to first order perturbation

(C) Raised due to second order perturbation

(D) Raised due to first order perturbation

  1. A state of a system with spherical symmetric potential has zero uncertainty in simultaneous measurements of operators L x and L y. Which of the following statements is true? (A) Such a state can never exist (B) The state must be l = 0 state (C) The state has l = 1 with m = 0 (D) The state can not be an eigenstate of L^2 operator
  2. Which of the following is an eigenfunction of Linear momentum

operator h i^ ∂^ ∂ x , such that it describes a particle moving in free space in the direction of negative x -axis, with zero uncertainty in the linear momentum? (A) cos kx (B) eikx (C) ekx (D) eikx

  1. The wave function for identical

particles is symmetric under particle interchange. Which of the following is a consequence of this property? (A) Pauli-Exclusion principle (B) Bose-Einstein condensation (C) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (D) Bohr-correspondence principle

  1. A point charge q is kept at a distance

of 2R from the centre of a grounded conducting sphere of radius R. The image charge and its distance from the centre are respectively :

(A) −^ q and^ R 2

(B) − 2^ q and R 2

(C) −^ q and^ R 4

(D) − 2^ q and R 4

  1. The dimensions of a quantity |E^ μ^  0 B| are : (A) ML^2 T– (B) ML^2 T– (C) ML^0 T– (D) ML^0 T–
  2. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E = E cos ( 0 kz − ω t ) and B = B 0 cos( kz − ω t ). The relation between E 0 and B 0 is :

(A) E 0 B 0 =^ ω k (B) E 0 B 0 = ω k (C) E 0 K = B 0 ω (D) E 0 ω = B 0 k

  1. Electric field at large distance r , from the electric dipole is proportional to : (A) r^2 (B) r–^2 (C) r–^3 (D) r–^4
  1. If the temperature of a black body enclosure is doubled, the total number of photons in the enclosure increases by a factor of : (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
  2. Consider a system of spin −^12 particles with magnetic moment μ each. In an applied magnetic field, the spin can either be parallel or antiparallel to ‘H’ with equal probability. If there are 10 such particles, the total number of microstates will be : (A) 210 (B) 102 (C) 20 (D) 10
  3. For a photon gas, the chemical potential is : (A) Large and negative (B) Zero (C) Equal to Fermi energy (D) Large and positive
    1. Three distinguishable particles have a total energy of 9∈. These particles are distributed over the energy states with energy 0, ∈, 2∈, 3∈ and 4 ∈. The total number of microstates will be : (A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 10 (D) 6
    2. The noise figure of an amplifier is 3dB. Its noise temperature will be about : (A) 145 K (B) 290 K (C) 580 K (D) 870 K
    3. Resonance frequency for a free electron in a magnetic field with B = 1 tesla is : (A) 28.00 GHz (B) 14.00 GHz (C) 20.00 GHz (D) 2.80 GHz
    4. Which of the following detectors is used for the measurement of energy of a particle? (A) Ionisation chamber (B) G.M. counter (C) Proportional counter (D) Cerenkov counter

11 [P.T.O.

  1. Which of the following gauge can measure vacuum in the range 10 –10^ to 10–3^ torr? (A) McLeod gauge (B) Pirani gauge (C) Penning gauge (D) Ionization gauge
  2. In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, one of the drops falls at speed V without field and rises at speed V with field E applied. If the field is made E/2, the drop will : (A) fall with speed V/ (B) rise with speed V/ (C) rise with speed 3V/ (D) remain steady
  3. An oscilloscope is on AC mode with no input. If you touch the input a fifty Hertz signal is seen on the screen, what is the origin and how does it get coupled to the input? (A) It originates from the power line and is coupled through conducting air (B) It originates from the power line and is coupled through capacitor formed with air as dielectric (C) Originates from the power supply of the oscilloscope (D) Originates from our body as a result of electrical activity in the heart 37. The minimum value for emitter bypass capacitor C 2 in the following amplifier is..........................[operating frequency 2kHz–10 kHz]

~

R 1

R 2

C 1

RE C 2

C 3

560 Ω

6.8 kΩ

22 kΩ RC^ = 1 kΩ Vout

(A) 1.42 F

(B) 1.42 mF (C) 1.42 μF (D) 1.42 PF

  1. What kind of MOSFET mode can be used in the switching mode? (A) Depletion mode (B) Cut-off mode (C) Saturation mode (D) Enhancement mode

13 [P.T.O.

  1. Estimate the values of I c , V c in the following circuit :

(A) I c = 5.17 mA V c = 0 V (B) I c = 98 μA V c = 392 mV (C) I c = 4 mA V c = 16 V (D) I c = 4 mA V c = 4.7 V

  1. The output voltage for the following Op-Amp circuit is :
  • 3 V
  • 2 V
  • 4 V

R 1 = 10 kΩ (^) R f = 12 kΩ R 2 = 10 kΩ R 3 = 10 kΩ –

  • Ro

(A) – 3.6 V

(B) + 3.6 V

(C) + 4.

(D) – 4.

  1. The following circuit acts as a :

D 2

D 1

A

B

RB

RE

Vout

(A) NAND gate (B) NOR gate (C) AND gate (D) OR gate

  1. The shortest wavelength of spectral line in Lyman series is 912 Å. The shortest wavelength of the spectral line of the Paschen series will be :

(A) 8208 Å

(B) 8028 Å

(C) 8828 Å

(D) 8820 Å

  1. The normal modes of vibration of CO 2 molecule are observed at 1330 cm–1, 667cm–1^ (doubly degenerate) and 2349 cm–1. The total zero point energy of the CO 2 molecule is : (A) 31.1 eV (B) 0.031 eV (C) 0.311 eV (D) 3.11 eV [data : h = 6.625 × 10–34^ J.s, c = 3×10^8 m/s]
  2. How many normal modes of vibration does the water molecule possess? (A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
  3. Transition for the sodium D 1 line (589.6 nm) is : (A) 2 P 3 2 →^2 S (^1 ) (B) 2 P 1 2 →^2 S (^12) (C) 2 D 3 2 →^2 P (^1 ) (D) 2 D 5 2 →^2 P (^32)
    1. Transition for the sodium D 2 line (589.0 nm) is : (A) 2 P 3 2 →^2 S (^1 ) (B) 2 P 1 2 →^2 S (^12) (C) 2 D 3 2 →^2 P (^1 ) (D) 2 D^5 2 →^2 P (^32)
    2. How many electrons can be put in an atomic shell corresponding to n = 5? (A) 10 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 50
    3. How many spectral lines appear in the Zeeman splitting of 2 D 3 2 →^3 P (^1 ) transition of sodium? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4
    4. What is the ground state of a helium atom? (A) 2 P (^1 ) (B) 1 S 0 (C) 1 S (^12) (D) 2S 0
  1. The probability of occupation of an

energy level E, when E – EF = k T,

is :

(A) 0.

(B) 0.

(C) 0.

(D) 0.

  1. A unit cell of a cubic lattice has an

edge of 3.6Å. How many unit cells

are present in a lump of 1cm^3?

(A) 2.14 × 10^22

(B) 1.42 × 10^23

(C) 6.00 × 10^12

(D) 6.00 × 10^23

  1. The first Brillouin zone of the body- centered cubic lattice is :

(A) truncated octahedron

(B) rhombohedron

(C) tetrahedron

(D) rhombic dodecahedron

  1. The magnetic field (^) B inside a super- conductor maintained at a temperature T less than the critical temperature Tc :

(A) behaves linearly as a function of the applied field (^) H , up to a critical field H c

(B) vanishes identically upto the critical field H c

(C) is a non-zero constant below H c

(D) shows parabolic behaviour below H c and a gap above H c

17 [P.T.O.

  1. Above Curie temperature, the

ferromagnetic material exhibits

B-H curve in the form of :

(A) B–H loop

(B) Straight line

(C) Circle

(D) Ellipse

  1. A d.c. voltage of 1 μV applied across

a junction formed by sandwiching a

thin layer of insulator between two

superconductors causes rf current

oscillations of a frequency of :

(A) 48.36 MHz

(B) 4836.00 MHz

(C) 4.836 MHz

(D) 483.6 MHz

  1. In a semiconductor, the effective masses of holes and electrons are identical. The position of the Fermi level at absolute zero temperature is :

(A) near the top of the valence band

(B) near the bottom of the conduction band

(C) midway between valence and conduction bands

(D) below the valence band

  1. Among the following nuclei, which has the maximum binding energy per nucleon? (^168) O , 5626 Fe , 20882 Pb , 92235 U

(A) 168 O

(B) 5626 Fe

(C) 20882 Pb

(D) 23592 U

19 [P.T.O.

  1. Which of the following statements

is true for a compound nuclear reaction? (A) The formation of the compound nucleus and its break-up are independent (B) The break-up of compound nucleus is instantaneous (very short life time) (C) The break-up of a compound nucleus depends on the channel of its formation (D) The Q-value of compound nuclear reaction is always negative

  1. According to the liquid-drop model,

the surface energy part is proportional to : (A) A2/ (B) A1/ (C) A (D) A^2

  1. What is the possible values of Iso

Spin -I and its Z-component I 3 for

the following system of a particle

π_^ + p

(A) I 3 =^ −^12 , I =^1

(B) I 3 =^ −^12 , I =^32

(C) I 3 =^ −^32 , I = −^12

(D) I 3 =^12 , I =^12

  1. The quark structure of ∆++^ is :

(A) UUU

(B) UdU

(C) SSS

(D) ddd

ROUGH WORK