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Question 1. Which Commandant Instruction (COMDTINST) establishes the authority of the Coxswain as the direct representative of the CO/OIC? A) M16114. B) M16114. C) M16115. D) M16112. Answer: B Explanation: COMDTINST M16114.33 (Series) specifically outlines the Coxswain’s authority and responsibilities as the CO’s direct representative. Question 2. Under what circumstance may a Coxswain be relieved of duty before the scheduled end of a sortie? A) When a higher‑ranking officer arrives on scene B) If the vessel experiences a loss of propulsion C) When the crew requests a break after 2 hours of continuous operation D) If the Coxswain feels fatigued but has not exceeded duty limits Answer: B Explanation: Loss of propulsion is a safety‑critical condition that necessitates immediate relief of the Coxswain to ensure safe navigation. Question 3. The primary responsibility of a Coxswain regarding passengers is to: A) Ensure they are seated before departure B) Verify they have completed a safety briefing C) Maintain safe operation and navigation of the boat at all times D) Provide refreshments during the mission Answer: C Explanation: Passenger safety is directly tied to the Coxcain’s duty to operate the vessel safely and navigate responsibly. Question 4. Which of the following is NOT a primary environmental stewardship duty of a Coxswain?
A) Preventing oil discharge from the vessel B) Reporting wildlife sightings to the NOAA C) Responding to hazardous material spills D) Protecting marine mammals from vessel strike Answer: B Explanation: While reporting wildlife is useful, it is not a mandated environmental stewardship duty; the other three are required actions. Question 5. The five stages of a SAR system begin with: A) Planning B) Awareness C) Operations D) Conclusion Answer: B Explanation: SAR begins with the Awareness stage, where a distress is detected and reported. Question 6. In SAR terminology, the person who coordinates the overall mission from the incident command center is the: A) OSC B) SRU C) SMC D) SARF Answer: C Explanation: SMC stands for SAR Mission Coordinator, who manages resources and overall mission strategy. Question 7. The correct radio procedure to indicate an urgent situation that is not life‑threatening is: A) MAYDAY B) PAN‑PAN
Explanation: POD is calculated from sweep width and the amount of time/search effort applied to a given area. Question 11. Which navigation chart symbol indicates a “dry dock”? A) A square with a diagonal line B) A circle with an X inside C) A rectangle with a dot D) A triangle with a dot at the apex Answer: A Explanation: A square with a diagonal line is the standard symbol for a dry dock on US nautical charts. Question 12. The “scale” of a nautical chart is expressed as: A) Distance on chart : distance in the real world B) Latitude : longitude ratio C) Depth : distance ratio D) Time : distance ratio Answer: A Explanation: Chart scale defines how many units on the chart equal a unit in the real world (e.g., 1 : 50,000). Question 13. When using GPS, a “DOP” value of 1.2 indicates: A) Very poor satellite geometry B) Excellent satellite geometry and high accuracy C) Moderate accuracy, suitable for coastal navigation only D) That the GPS is in differential mode Answer: B Explanation: Dilution of Precision (DOP) values close to 1 represent optimal satellite geometry, yielding the highest positional accuracy. Question 14. Cross‑track error (XTE) is best described as:
A) The difference between course over ground and true heading B) The distance a vessel is off the intended track line C) The error in depth measurement due to tide D) The time lag between GPS updates Answer: B Explanation: XTE measures lateral deviation from the planned track, essential for correcting course. Question 15. Dead Reckoning (DR) requires knowledge of which three variables? A) Latitude, longitude, and altitude B) Speed, time, and distance C) Draft, trim, and displacement D) Wind, current, and wave height Answer: B Explanation: DR calculates position by multiplying speed by time to obtain distance traveled. Question 16. To determine a fix using intersecting lines of position (LOPs), a navigator needs at least: A) One bearing B) Two bearings C) Three bearings D) Four bearings Answer: B Explanation: Two independent bearings intersect to give a position fix. Question 17. When applying set and drift to calculate a Course to Steer (CTS), the navigator must first determine: A) The vessel’s draft B) The true wind direction C) The vector of current (set and drift)
Question 21. During heavy weather, the safest speed for a small boat in surf is: A) Full ahead to outrun the wave B) Neutral gear and let the waves push the vessel C) Slow enough to maintain control while reducing impact forces D) Reverse to keep the bow into the waves Answer: C Explanation: Maintaining a moderate speed improves control and reduces the risk of capsizing in surf. Question 22. The Anderson turn is primarily used for: A) Changing course quickly to avoid a collision B) Recovering a man overboard when the vessel is heading upwind C) Executing a rapid 180° turn in confined waters D) Aligning the vessel for a parallel search pattern Answer: B Explanation: The Anderson turn is a standard maneuver for MOB recovery, especially when wind is from the bow. Question 23. In a side‑tow operation, the towline should be attached to the towed vessel’s: A) Bow B) Mid‑ship cleat C) Stern D) Transom Answer: C Explanation: Attaching the towline to the stern of the towed vessel provides better control and reduces the risk of capsizing. Question 24. Shock loading on a towline is most likely to occur when: A) The towline is too long
B) The towed vessel suddenly accelerates or decelerates C) The towline is made of nylon D) The tow is performed in calm water Answer: B Explanation: Sudden changes in speed create high tension spikes (shock loads) on the towline. Question 25. The PEACE model for Operational Risk Management includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Planning B) Event C) Asset D) Communication Answer: B Explanation: PEACE stands for Planning, Event, Asset, Communication, Environment; “Event” is a component, not excluded. Question 26. Which STAAR mitigation strategy involves assigning the risk to another party? A) Spread out B) Transfer C) Avoid D) Reduce Answer: B Explanation: “Transfer” means shifting the risk to another organization or individual (e.g., through insurance). Question 27. The most common sign of crew fatigue is: A) Increased appetite B) Decreased reaction time and poor decision‑making C) Excessive laughter D) Heightened alertness
Question 31. According to Rule 5, a proper lookout must be maintained by: A) Visual observation only B) Radar and AIS exclusively C) Sight and hearing, plus any other senses or devices appropriate D) The officer of the deck only Answer: C Explanation: Rule 5 mandates a lookout by sight, hearing, and any other means (radar, AIS) appropriate to the circumstances. Question 32. Rule 6 requires vessels to travel at a speed that is: A) Maximum possible to reach destination quickly B) Safe, taking into account visibility, traffic density, and maneuverability C) Equal to the vessel’s design speed D) No more than 10 knots in inland waters Answer: B Explanation: Safe speed must consider prevailing conditions, traffic, and vessel handling. Question 33. In a crossing situation, which vessel must give way? A) The vessel that has the other on its starboard side B) The vessel that has the other on its port side C) The larger vessel D) The vessel traveling at a slower speed Answer: B Explanation: The vessel that has the other on its port side must keep out of the way (Rule 15). Question 34. A vessel displaying three all‑round white lights in a vertical line is: A) A vessel at anchor B) A vessel engaged in fishing
C) A vessel restricted in its ability to maneuver D) A vessel under tow Answer: D Explanation: Three all‑round white lights vertically indicate a vessel under tow. Question 35. The “day shape” for a vessel not under command (NUC) is: A) A single black ball B) Two black balls, one above the other C) Three black balls in a vertical line D) A black cone Answer: C Explanation: Three black balls in a vertical line denote a vessel not under command. Question 36. When navigating in a narrow channel, Rule 9 requires vessels to: A) Both proceed at maximum speed to clear the channel quickly B) Keep as near to the outer edge of the channel as possible C) Keep as near to the outer limit of the channel which is safe for navigation D) Stop and reverse if another vessel approaches from astern Answer: C Explanation: Vessels must keep as near to the outer limit of the channel that is safe for navigation. Question 37. The purpose of a “light list” is to: A) Provide a catalog of all lighthouses worldwide B) List the characteristics of navigational lights for a specific area C) Show the schedule of light maintenance crews D) Identify the electrical specifications of vessel lighting Answer: B Explanation: Light lists contain details of light characteristics (color, rhythm, range) for a defined region.
C) The speed differential between tow and towing vessels D) The method of attaching the towline to the tow vessel Answer: A Explanation: Catenary describes the natural curve of a heavy towline under its own weight, which helps absorb shock loads. Question 42. Which of the following is a correct statement about “Set and Drift” in navigation? A) Set is the speed of the current; drift is its direction B) Set is the direction from which the current originates; drift is the speed C) Set is the direction of the current; drift is the speed of the current D) Set and drift are only used for wind calculations Answer: C Explanation: Set (direction) and drift (speed) describe the current’s influence on vessel movement. Question 43. During a SAR mission, the “Search Action Plan (SAP)” is developed during which stage? A) Awareness B) Initial Action C) Planning D) Operations Answer: C Explanation: The SAP is created in the Planning stage after the initial assessment of the incident. Question 44. A “sector” search pattern is most appropriate when: A) The probable location of the target is known only as a bearing from a known point B) The area to be searched is a long, narrow strip C) The target is moving at a known speed and course D) The search area is a large, undefined region Answer: A
Explanation: Sector searches are used when the target is believed to be somewhere along a line radiating from a point. Question 45. The “sweep width (W)” of a search is defined as: A) The total distance covered by the search vessel B) The width of the area effectively searched in one pass C) The distance between two successive search legs D) The time required to complete one leg of the search Answer: B Explanation: Sweep width represents the lateral distance within which a target is likely to be detected during a single pass. Question 46. In heavy weather, the most effective way to reduce the impact of waves on a small boat is to: A) Increase speed to outrun the waves B) Align the boat’s bow directly into the waves (heading into the sea) C) Turn the vessel broadside to the waves D) Deploy a sea anchor aft Answer: B Explanation: Heading into oncoming waves reduces pounding and improves control. Question 47. Which buoyage color indicates the “preferred channel” in U.S. inland waters? A) Red B) Green C) Yellow D) White Answer: B Explanation: Green buoys mark the preferred channel side (starboard when returning from sea).
B) Transmit a coded radio message C) Reflect sunlight to attract attention over long distances D) Emit infrared light for night vision detection Answer: C Explanation: Mirrors reflect sunlight, creating a bright flash visible to aircraft or distant vessels. Question 52. The term “MOB” stands for: A) Marine Operational Briefing B) Man Overboard C) Maintenance of Buoys D) Maritime Officer’s Badge Answer: B Explanation: MOB is the abbreviation for “Man Overboard,” a critical emergency situation. Question 53. In a “creeping” search pattern, the vessel: A) Moves in a tight circle around a point B) Advances slowly while maintaining a fixed bearing to a target C) Conducts a series of parallel legs with small spacing D) Performs a series of concentric circles expanding outward Answer: B Explanation: Creeping searches involve slow forward motion while keeping a constant bearing on a suspected target. Question 54. Which of the following best describes “propeller walk” when the vessel is moving forward with a right‑handed propeller? A) The vessel tends to move to port B) The vessel tends to move to starboard C) No lateral movement occurs D) The vessel rotates clockwise about its centerline
Answer: A Explanation: A right‑handed propeller pushes water to starboard, causing the stern to move to port (the vessel “walks” to port). Question 55. The “International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea” (COLREGS) are enforced by: A) The United Nations only B) Individual flag states and the International Maritime Organization (IMO) C) The U.S. Coast Guard exclusively D) Local harbor masters Answer: B Explanation: COLREGS are an IMO convention, enforced by each nation’s maritime authority. Question 56. In inland navigation, a “restricted visibility” condition is defined as: A) Visibility less than 12 nm B) Visibility less than 5 nm in daylight or 3 nm at night C) Visibility less than 1 nm in any condition D) Visibility less than 0.5 nm in fog only Answer: B Explanation: Restricted visibility is visibility less than 5 nm during day or 3 nm at night. Question 57. The “tide pole” on a chart is used to determine: A) The direction of tidal currents only B) The magnitude of tidal height at a specific location C) Both the direction of tidal flow and the time of high/low water relative to a reference point D) The depth of water over a sand bar Answer: C Explanation: Tide poles indicate the direction of tidal flow and the timing of high/low water relative to a datum.
C) Twice the sweep width D) Three times the sweep width Answer: B Explanation: Standard parallel search spacing uses the full sweep width to ensure complete coverage. Question 62. The primary purpose of a “search and rescue action plan (SARAP)” is to: A) Document the vessel’s maintenance history B) Provide a detailed, step‑by‑step plan for executing the search and rescue effort C) Record crew qualifications D) Outline the financial costs of the SAR operation Answer: B Explanation: The SARAP contains the operational details needed to conduct the SAR mission efficiently. Question 63. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a Coxswain’s pre‑mission briefing? A) Weather forecast B) Vessel fuel consumption rates C) Crew rest schedule for the next 48 hours D) Communication plan and frequencies Answer: C Explanation: While crew fatigue is important, a 48‑hour rest schedule is beyond the scope of a pre‑mission briefing. Question 64. When a vessel is “under way” but not moving, the required navigation lights are: A) All lights are extinguished B) Anchor light only C) Sidelights and stern light D) No lights required if anchored Answer: C
Explanation: A vessel “under way” but stopped must display sidelights and a stern light to indicate it is not anchored. Question 65. The “Rule 13” overtaking vessel must keep out of the way of a vessel that is: A) Traveling on a starboard‑hand rule course B) Engaged in fishing operations C) Being overtaken, regardless of size or type D) Underway with restricted visibility Answer: C Explanation: Rule 13 obligates the overtaking vessel to keep clear of the vessel being overtaken. Question 66. The “Rule 9” (narrow channels) requires vessels to: A) Keep to the starboard side of the channel at all times B) Keep as near to the outer limit of the channel which is safe for navigation C) Reduce speed to 5 knots in all narrow channels D) Sound a prolonged blast when entering a narrow channel Answer: B Explanation: Vessels must stay as close as practicable to the outer edge of the channel that is safe for navigation. Question 67. A “cutter” is identified by which day shape? A) A single black ball B) Two black cones, apex to apex C) Three black balls in a vertical line D) A black diamond Answer: B Explanation: Two black cones, apex to apex, represent a cutter. Question 68. In a “trackline” (T) search pattern, the vessel:
