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Question 1. Which of the following best defines a “power‑driven vessel” under the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea (COLREGs)? A) Any vessel propelled by sail only B) A vessel propelled by machinery, including engines and turbines C) A vessel that is anchored or moored D) A vessel under human power such as rowing Answer: B Explanation: A power‑driven vessel is any vessel propelled by machinery, regardless of the type of engine, and is subject to the steering and sailing rules of the COLREGs. Question 2. In restricted visibility, what is the minimum speed a vessel may travel when it cannot see an impending danger? A) Maximum speed possible B) A speed that allows safe stopping within the visible range C) Any speed, as long as the helm is being held D) No speed limit; speed is irrelevant Answer: B Explanation: “Safe speed” in restricted visibility requires the vessel to travel at a speed that enables it to stop within the distance it can see ahead, reducing collision risk. Question 3. Which vessel has the highest priority (stand‑on vessel) in a crossing situation? A) A power‑driven vessel on the starboard side of a sailing vessel B) A sailing vessel crossing a power‑driven vessel from the starboard side C) A fishing vessel crossing a cargo vessel from the port side D) A power‑driven vessel crossing any vessel from the starboard side Answer: B
Explanation: In a crossing situation, the vessel which has the other on its starboard side must give way; thus the sailing vessel (standing on) has priority over the power‑driven vessel crossing from starboard. Question 4. According to the “pecking order” of vessels, which vessel must give way to a seaplane? A) A non‑unrestricted commercial (NUC) vessel B) A fishing vessel C) A power‑driven vessel D) A sailing vessel Answer: C Explanation: The hierarchy places seaplanes above power‑driven vessels; therefore power‑driven vessels must keep clear of seaplanes. Question 5. When overtaking another vessel, which of the following statements is correct? A) The overtaking vessel must keep out of the other vessel’s way and give way B) The vessel being overtaken must give way to the overtaking vessel C) Both vessels must maintain the same speed D) Overtaking is prohibited in all traffic separation schemes Answer: A Explanation: The overtaking vessel is always the give‑way vessel and must keep out of the way of the vessel being overtaken. Question 6. In a head‑on situation, what maneuver should each vessel undertake? A) Both vessels alter course to starboard and pass port‑to‑port B) Both vessels alter course to port and pass starboard‑to‑starboard C) One vessel maintains course while the other turns to starboard D) Both vessels stop and wait for clearance Answer: A
Answer: B Explanation: Law‑enforcement vessels may display a yellow (or amber) flashing light or searchlight to indicate their presence and authority. Question 10. Which of the following is a short blast sound signal according to the COLREGs? A) One short blast (≤ 1 second) – “danger” B) Two short blasts – “I am altering course to starboard” C) One short blast – “I am operating my vessel” D) Four short blasts – “I am backing down” Answer: C Explanation: One short blast is the general signal that a vessel is underway and making way. Question 11. In fog, what sound signal must a power‑driven vessel underway, making way, give at intervals of not more than two minutes? A) One prolonged blast of at least four seconds B) Two short blasts spaced one second apart C) Three short blasts, each one second long D) Four prolonged blasts of two seconds each Answer: A Explanation: In restricted visibility, a power‑driven vessel making way must sound one prolonged blast (≥ 4 seconds) at intervals not exceeding two minutes. Question 12. Which of the following visual signals indicates distress? A) Six short white flares in a row B) Three red flares placed one after another C) A single white flare followed by a red flare D) Six red flares in a vertical line
Answer: D Explanation: Six red flares or rockets displayed vertically or in a line signal distress according to international conventions. Question 13. Magnetic north differs from true north because of: A) The Earth’s rotation B) Magnetic declination (variation) C) Time zones D) Latitude only Answer: B Explanation: Magnetic north is offset from true north by magnetic variation (declination), which varies by location. Question 14. When consulting a deviation table, what does a “+” deviation indicate? A) Compass reads higher (east) than true heading B) Compass reads lower (west) than true heading C) No correction needed D) The compass is malfunctioning Answer: A Explanation: A positive deviation means the compass points to the east of the true heading; the correction is subtracted from the compass reading. Question 15. On a NOAA nautical chart, a red buoy with a white stripe indicates: A) The starboard side of a channel (red‑right‑returning) B) A hazard to navigation C) The port side of a channel D) A preferred channel marker
Answer: B Explanation: GPS accuracy can be affected by ionospheric delays, signal blockage, and multipath reflections, so it must be used with other navigation methods. Question 19. An echo sounder indicates a sudden increase in depth from 3 m to 15 m while the vessel is moving forward. This most likely indicates: A) The vessel is entering a deeper channel B) The echo sounder is malfunctioning C) The vessel is grounding D) The water temperature has risen Answer: A Explanation: A rapid increase in measured depth generally means the vessel has moved from a shallow to a deeper area, assuming the equipment is functioning correctly. Question 20. Which physical phenomenon causes “propeller walk” on a single‑screw vessel with a right‑handed propeller? A) The vortex generated by the propeller pushes the stern to starboard B) The propeller’s thrust pushes the bow to port C) The rotating propeller creates a lateral force that moves the stern to port when moving forward D) Propeller walk does not exist; it is a myth Answer: C Explanation: A right‑handed propeller creates a sideways force that pushes the stern to port (left) when the vessel is moving forward, known as propeller walk. Question 21. When docking a launch in a cross‑current, the safest approach is to: A) Approach directly into the current at full speed B) Approach at a slight angle upstream, reducing speed, and allow the current to carry the vessel toward the dock C) Anchor upstream and wait for the current to stop
D) Use only the vessel’s reverse thrust Answer: B Explanation: Approaching slightly upstream lets the current carry the vessel toward the dock while maintaining control with reduced forward speed. Question 22. The recommended scope ratio for anchoring a launch in calm water with a 4 ft anchor is: A) 1: B) 2: C) 4:1 to 5: D) 10: Answer: C Explanation: In calm conditions, a scope of 4:1 to 5:1 (anchor line length to water depth) provides adequate holding while minimizing drag. Question 23. Which turn is most efficient for a “Man Overboard” (MOB) recovery when the vessel is under power and the MOB is on the starboard side? A) Williamson turn (2‑right‑turn) B) Anderson turn (single 180° turn) C) Simple reverse and back‑up D) No turn; continue forward Answer: A Explanation: The Williamson turn (right‑right) brings the vessel back on a reciprocal track quickly, ideal when the MOB is on the starboard side. Question 24. A cumulonimbus cloud is an indicator of: A) Clear, calm weather
A) 0–5 kt B) 6–12 kt C) 13–20 kt D) 21–30 kt Answer: C Explanation: The National Weather Service issues a Small Craft Advisory when sustained winds are 13– 20 kt (15–23 mph) or higher, indicating potentially hazardous conditions for small vessels. Question 28. When transporting 12 passengers on a launch, the primary factor affecting stability is: A) The color of the hull B) The distribution of weight fore and aft and laterally C) The type of fuel used D) The number of life jackets on board Answer: B Explanation: Proper weight distribution (both fore‑aft and side‑to‑side) maintains the vessel’s center of gravity within safe limits, directly affecting stability. Question 29. Which document must be carried on an inspected launch for each passenger trip? A) A copy of the vessel’s registration only B) A passenger manifest listing names, emergency contacts, and medical information C) A copy of the captain’s driver’s license D) No documentation is required Answer: B Explanation: Inspected launches must maintain a passenger manifest that includes each passenger’s name, emergency contact, and any relevant medical data.
Question 30. When operating a launch in a high‑traffic harbor, which of the following actions is required by the COLREGs? A) Always give way to all vessels regardless of size B) Maintain a proper lookout, use sound signals, and adhere to right‑of‑way rules C) Turn off navigation lights to avoid confusion D) Increase speed to pass through traffic quickly Answer: B Explanation: Maintaining a proper lookout, using appropriate signals, and following right‑of‑way rules are mandatory to prevent collisions in congested waterways. Question 31. An “uninspected” launch is required to have which of the following fire‑extinguishing equipment? A) A fixed CO₂ system B) Two portable fire extinguishers, one rated for Class A and one for Class B fires C) No fire equipment required D) A water‑sprinkler system Answer: B Explanation: Uninspected vessels must carry at least two portable extinguishers covering Class A (ordinary combustibles) and Class B (flammable liquids) fires. Question 32. The fire triangle consists of which three elements? A) Heat, fuel, and oxygen B) Water, foam, and powder C) Electricity, gas, and metal D) Light, sound, and motion Answer: A
Explanation: For inland, near‑shore operations, a Type II (insufficiently buoyant for offshore but suitable for calm waters) PFD meets USCG standards. Question 36. An EPIRB (Emergency Position‑Indicating Radio Beacon) must be activated in which situation? A) When the vessel is docked for routine maintenance B) When a vessel is in distress and requires immediate rescue assistance C) Only during scheduled drills D) When the vessel is sailing under 5 knots Answer: B Explanation: EPIRBs are emergency devices intended to transmit a distress signal to search‑and‑rescue satellites when a vessel is in danger. Question 37. In the event of a grounding, the first action the crew should take is: A) Immediately abandon ship B) Assess damage, stop water ingress, and notify the Coast Guard if needed C) Increase speed to try to free the vessel D) Remove all cargo Answer: B Explanation: The crew should first evaluate the situation, control flooding, and report the incident if required, before taking further actions. Question 38. Which VHF channel is designated for distress, safety, and calling? A) Channel 6 B) Channel 13 C) Channel 16 D) Channel 22
Answer: C Explanation: Channel 16 (156.8 MHz) is the international distress, safety, and calling frequency for marine VHF communications. Question 39. When transmitting a Mayday call, which of the following is the correct sequence? A) “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, this is… (vessel name), position, nature of distress, assistance required” B) “Pan‑Pan, Pan‑Pan, Pan‑Pan, this is… (vessel name), position, nature of distress” C) “Securité, Sécurité, Sécurité, this is… (vessel name), position, weather report” D) “All‑clear, All‑clear, All‑clear, this is… (vessel name)” Answer: A Explanation: The Mayday call follows the pattern: three repetitions of “Mayday,” vessel identification, position, nature of distress, and required assistance. Question 40. Under the USCG Vessel Documentation rules, a launch that operates only within a single state’s inland waters must be: A) Documented with a U.S. Coast Guard Certificate of Documentation B) Registered with the state’s marine authority, not documented federally C) Both documented and registered D) Exempt from any registration Answer: B Explanation: Vessels operating solely on inland waters may be registered with the state; federal documentation is not required unless they engage in interstate or foreign voyages. Question 41. The Marine Employer Drug Testing (MEDT) program is required for which type of vessel? A) All recreational launches under 15 ft B) Any vessel that transports more than 15 passengers for hire C) Only vessels over 100 ft in length
B) Provide a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) demonstrating ability to cover cleanup costs C) Only report spills after cleanup is complete D) Install a double‑bottom hull on all vessels Answer: B Explanation: OPA‑90 mandates that owners obtain a COFR, proving they have the financial resources to respond to oil‑spill incidents. Question 45. Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is approved for use in “no‑discharge” (zero‑discharge) zones? A) Type I – Direct‑discharge overboard B) Type II – Holding tank with discharge after treatment C) Type III – Portable toilet with no discharge capability D) All types are permitted Answer: C Explanation: Type III MSDs are portable, self‑contained units that retain waste, making them suitable for zero‑discharge areas. Question 46. A state law requires all launch operators to wear life jackets while underway. This law is an example of: A) Federal preemption B) State‑specific boating safety regulation C) International treaty compliance D) Unenforceable recommendation Answer: B Explanation: State‑specific boating safety statutes can impose additional requirements beyond federal regulations.
Question 47. The territorial limit for a USCG Launch Tender license is generally: A) Unlimited, worldwide B) Within the United States and its territorial waters (up to 12 nm) C) Only on inland lakes and rivers D) Only in the Great Lakes Answer: B Explanation: A Launch Tender license permits operation within U.S. waters, typically up to 12 nm from the baseline, unless otherwise authorized. Question 48. A Harbor Master may require a launch to: A) Operate without lights at night B) Submit a vessel traffic plan and adhere to local speed limits C) Ignore COLREGs within the harbor D) Carry no passengers during high tide Answer: B Explanation: Harbor Masters have authority to enforce local regulations, including speed limits and vessel traffic plans, to ensure safety. Question 49. Which of the following is a correct method for uncorrecting a compass course to obtain a true course? A) Add variation, then subtract deviation B) Subtract deviation, then add variation C) Add both deviation and variation D) No correction is needed Answer: B Explanation: To convert a magnetic compass reading to true, first subtract deviation (compass error) and then add variation (magnetic declination).
Explanation: A single black ball (or sphere) displayed at the fore of a vessel signals that it is restricted in its ability to maneuver. Question 53. When a vessel is operating in a narrow channel, which side must a vessel keep to when passing a vessel that is overtaking? A) Starboard side of the overtaking vessel B) Port side of the overtaking vessel C) Directly ahead of the overtaking vessel D) It does not matter Answer: A Explanation: The overtaking vessel must keep out of the way and pass on the starboard side of the vessel being overtaken, especially in a narrow channel. Question 54. A vessel’s “lookout” is defined as: A) The person responsible for steering the vessel only B) Any person on board who is assigned to keep watch by sight and hearing for other vessels, hazards, and navigation marks C) The captain’s pet dog D) A radar operator only Answer: B Explanation: The COLREGs define a lookout as anyone assigned to watch for hazards by sight and hearing, not limited to a specific crew member. Question 55. In a crossing situation, the give‑way vessel must: A) Maintain course and speed B) Take early and substantial action to avoid collision, altering course to starboard if necessary C) Signal with a single short blast only D) Increase speed to pass before the other vessel
Answer: B Explanation: The give‑way vessel must take early, substantial action to avoid collision, usually by altering course to starboard. Question 56. Which of the following is NOT a required sound signal for a vessel at anchor in restricted visibility? A) One prolonged blast every two minutes B) One short blast every minute C) No sound signal is required while anchored D) A continuous low‑frequency tone Answer: D Explanation: The COLREGs prescribe a single short blast at intervals not exceeding a minute for an anchored vessel; a continuous low‑frequency tone is not specified. Question 57. The “Maneuvering Signal” for a vessel intending to turn to port is: A) One short blast followed by one prolonged blast B) Two short blasts (one after the other) C) One prolonged blast followed by one short blast D) Three short blasts Answer: B Explanation: Two short blasts indicate a vessel’s intention to turn to port (left). Question 58. The “Warning Signal” for a vessel operating astern of another vessel is: A) One short blast B) Two short blasts C) One prolonged blast D) Three short blasts
