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USMC Combat Fitness Test (CFT) Monitor Study
Guide Latest Updated
1. What is the primary purpose of the USMC Combat Fitness Test (CFT)? A. Measure body composition B. Test marksmanship ability C. Evaluate combat-related physical fitness D. Replace the Physical Fitness Test ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The CFT measures physical abilities required in combat situations. It focuses on strength, stamina, and agility. These skills reflect battlefield demands. The CFT complements the PFT rather than replacing it. 2. Which three fitness attributes does the CFT evaluate? A. Speed, balance, flexibility B. Strength, stamina, agility C. Endurance, flexibility, coordination D. Power, balance, reaction time ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: The CFT is designed around strength, stamina, and agility. Each event measures one or more of these components. Together they provide a combat-focused fitness assessment. These attributes are essential for mission readiness. 3. Who is responsible for ensuring CFT events are conducted safely? A. Unit commander B. Medical officer C. CFT monitor D. Senior enlisted advisor ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The CFT monitor is responsible for safety during all events. This includes enforcing standards and stopping unsafe actions. Safety is always the top priority. Command provides oversight, but monitors execute control. 4. Which uniform is normally worn during the CFT? A. Service uniform B. Utility uniform with boots C. Physical training gear D. Combat load ✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Marines perform the CFT in utility uniforms and boots. This simulates combat conditions. Standardized uniforms ensure fairness. Monitors must verify proper wear.
5. Which event is conducted first in the CFT? A. Ammunition Lift B. Maneuver Under Fire C. Movement to Contact D. Obstacle course ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Movement to Contact is the first event. It measures stamina and speed. Performing it first ensures consistency. Marines must be properly warmed up. 6. What distance is covered during the Movement to Contact event? A. 440 yards B. 880 yards C. 1 mile D. 800 meters ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Movement to Contact event covers 880 yards. This distance challenges cardiovascular endurance. Accurate course measurement is required. Monitors must ensure proper markings. 7. What type of movement is required during Movement to Contact? A. Walking only B. Sprinting only C. Running at the Marine’s pace D. Crawling ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Marines run at their own pace during the event. The goal is to complete the distance as fast as possible. Sprinting the entire distance is not required. Safe pacing is encouraged. 8. What must a monitor do if a Marine appears injured during Movement to Contact? A. Ignore unless Marine stops B. Immediately disqualify C. Assess safety and stop if needed D. Restart the event ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Safety is the monitor’s primary concern. The Marine’s condition must be assessed immediately. The event may be stopped if injury is suspected. Medical evaluation may be required. 9. Which event measures upper-body strength and endurance? A. Movement to Contact B. Maneuver Under Fire
14. What event is conducted last in the CFT? A. Ammunition Lift B. Movement to Contact C. Maneuver Under Fire D. Obstacle course ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Maneuver Under Fire is the final event. It combines multiple combat-related tasks. Conducting it last tests fatigue management. Proper lane setup is critical. 15. What does the Maneuver Under Fire event primarily test? A. Balance B. Flexibility C. Combat endurance and agility D. Static strength ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Maneuver Under Fire tests agility, endurance, and combat skills. It simulates battlefield movement under stress. Multiple tasks are performed consecutively. This makes it the most complex event. 16. Which piece of equipment is required for the CFT? A. Pull-up bar B. Dummy grenades C. Treadmill D. Weight vest ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: Dummy grenades are required during Maneuver Under Fire. They simulate explosive handling. Equipment must meet standards. Monitors must inspect all gear beforehand. 17. What is the monitor’s responsibility regarding scoring? A. Estimate scores B. Record scores accurately C. Allow Marines to self-report D. Adjust scores if requested ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: Monitors must accurately record all scores. Errors can affect promotions and evaluations. Integrity of the test depends on accuracy. Scores must be documented properly. 18. What is the purpose of risk management during the CFT? A. Increase difficulty B. Reduce injuries C. Shorten test time D. Improve scores ✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Risk management reduces the chance of injury. Hazards are identified and controlled. This protects Marines and monitors. Safety planning is mandatory.
19. What is the first step of the risk management process? A. Implement controls B. Supervise C. Identify hazards D. Assess risks ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Identifying hazards is the first RM step. Potential dangers must be recognized early. This allows proper controls to be applied. Skipping this step increases risk. 20. What should a monitor do if weather conditions become unsafe? A. Continue the test B. Speed up events C. Stop or delay the test D. Ignore conditions ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Unsafe weather requires stopping or delaying the test. Heat, lightning, or poor footing increase injury risk. Safety outweighs scheduling concerns. Command guidance should be followed. 21. Who determines if a Marine is medically cleared for the CFT? A. CFT monitor B. Unit commander C. Medical personnel D. Senior Marine ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Medical personnel determine medical clearance. Monitors do not make medical decisions. Clearance protects the Marine’s health. Documentation must be verified. 22. What should a monitor do if equipment is damaged? A. Use it anyway B. Repair it during the test C. Replace it before use D. Ignore the damage ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Damaged equipment must be replaced before testing. Faulty gear can cause injury or invalid scores. Inspections are required. Safety and accuracy depend on serviceable equipment. 23. What is the monitor’s role during Maneuver Under Fire? A. Coach Marines B. Enforce standards and safety
28. How long is the Ammunition Lift event? A. 1 minute B. 2 minutes C. 3 minutes D. Until failure ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: The event lasts exactly two minutes. Marines perform as many correct repetitions as possible within that time. Monitors must track both time and repetitions. Strict timing ensures scoring accuracy. 29. What counts as a valid repetition in the Ammunition Lift? A. Chin-level lift B. Partial extension C. Full lockout overhead with control D. Chest-level lift ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: A valid repetition requires full arm extension overhead. Partial lifts are not counted. Proper control prevents injury. Monitors must not count incomplete repetitions. 30. What piece of equipment is used for the Ammunition Lift event? A. 45 lb barbell B. 30 lb kettlebell C. 30 lb ammunition can D. 20 lb sandbag ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Ammunition Lift uses a standardized 30-pound ammunition can. This ensures consistency and fairness across all Marines. Using unauthorized equipment invalidates the event. Monitors must verify the weight before testing begins. 31. What is the monitor’s role during the Ammunition Lift event? A. Count only repetitions B. Track time only C. Ensure proper form and count repetitions D. Coach the Marine ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The monitor must ensure each repetition meets the required standard while accurately counting repetitions. Coaching or encouraging specific techniques is not permitted. Proper monitoring prevents injuries and scoring errors. Attention to form is critical. 32. What happens if a Marine fails to maintain proper form during the Ammunition Lift? A. The event is stopped B. The repetition is not counted C. The Marine is disqualified D. Time is deducted
✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: Improper repetitions do not count toward the score. The Marine may continue performing additional repetitions if able. Disqualification is not automatic unless safety is compromised. Monitors must clearly communicate “no count” when necessary.
33. What is the Movement to Contact (MTC) event designed to evaluate? A. Flexibility and balance B. Agility and coordination C. Cardiovascular endurance and combat movement D. Upper-body strength ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The MTC simulates rapid movement under combat conditions. It evaluates cardiovascular endurance and functional movement. The event reflects real-world operational demands. Proper course setup is essential for accurate assessment. 34. What is the total distance of the Movement to Contact event? A. 440 yards B. 800 meters C. 880 yards D. 1 mile ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Movement to Contact event covers a total distance of 880 yards. This distance includes multiple movement segments. Accuracy in measuring the course is critical. Monitors must ensure distances are clearly marked. 35. What is the monitor required to do at the finish of each CFT event? A. Allow Marines to leave immediately B. Announce unofficial scores C. Ensure scores are recorded correctly D. Retest questionable performances ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Accurate score recording is one of the monitor’s primary responsibilities. Errors can affect promotions and readiness assessments. Retesting is not done unless directed by command. Proper documentation ensures integrity of the CFT. 36. What is the monitor required to track during the Ammunition Lift event? A. Time only B. Repetitions only C. Time and correct repetitions D. Marine effort level ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The monitor must track both time and valid repetitions. Incorrect repetitions are not counted. Accurate tracking ensures fair scoring. Attention is required throughout the event.
Explanation: Grenades must land in the designated area. If missed, the Marine must repeat the task. Time continues until the task is completed. This maintains standardization.
42. During Maneuver Under Fire, what happens if a Marine skips a movement lane? A. The lane is ignored B. Time stops C. The Marine must complete the lane D. Event restarts ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: All required lanes must be completed. Skipping a lane is not permitted. Time continues until the lane is completed. This ensures fairness. 43. What is the monitor responsible for at the conclusion of each event? A. Allowing Marines to depart B. Providing coaching feedback C. Verifying and recording scores D. Announcing winners ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Monitors must verify and record scores accurately. This ensures test integrity. Errors can affect evaluations. Proper documentation is essential. 44. What is the correct response if a Marine disputes a score? A. Adjust the score immediately B. Ignore the complaint C. Refer the issue through the chain of command D. Retest the Marine ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Monitors do not change scores based on disputes. Issues must be addressed through the chain of command. Proper procedures protect integrity. Documentation supports decisions. 45. When should water and rest be provided during the CFT? A. Only after all events B. At the Marine’s request only C. As directed by safety and conditions D. Not allowed ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Hydration and rest are provided based on conditions and safety. Heat and exertion require mitigation. Risk management applies. Monitors must follow guidance. 46. What is the monitor’s role regarding Marine motivation? A. Encourage maximum effort B. Provide verbal coaching C. Remain neutral and objective D. Correct performance techniques
✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Monitors must remain neutral. Motivation or coaching could create unfair advantages. Objectivity ensures standardization. This maintains test credibility.
47. What should a monitor do if a Marine shows signs of heat injury? A. Allow the Marine to finish B. Encourage hydration only C. Stop the event and seek medical support D. Reduce the score ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Heat injury signs require immediate action. The event must be stopped. Medical personnel should be notified. Safety overrides scoring. 48. Why must monitors be thoroughly trained before administering the CFT? A. To improve Marine scores B. To shorten testing time C. To ensure consistent and safe administration D. To replace medical personnel ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Proper training ensures consistent enforcement of standards. It reduces errors and injuries. Well-trained monitors protect test integrity. Safety and fairness depend on competence. 49. What is the consequence of incorrect score documentation? A. No impact B. Automatic retest C. Potential administrative or career impact D. Only verbal correction ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Incorrect documentation can affect promotions and evaluations. Accuracy is critical. Errors undermine confidence in the test. Monitors must be diligent. 50. What is the overall goal of the CFT monitoring process? A. Push Marines beyond limits B. Identify the weakest Marines C. Ensure safe, fair, and standardized testing D. Complete the test quickly ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The goal of monitoring is safe and fair testing. Standardization ensures valid results. Monitors protect both Marines and the integrity of the CFT. Accuracy and safety are paramount. 51. What must a monitor verify before allowing a Marine to begin the CFT? A. Previous CFT score B. Medical clearance and proper uniform
56. What is the monitor’s responsibility regarding warm-up activities? A. Lead physical training B. Ensure warm-up is conducted C. Eliminate warm-ups D. Coach stretching techniques ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: Monitors ensure a proper warm-up occurs. Warm-ups reduce injury risk. Leading or coaching exercises is not required. Safety is the focus. 57. Why is pacing important during the Movement to Contact event? A. To improve scores B. To avoid disqualification C. To reduce injury risk D. To shorten the event ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Proper pacing helps prevent overexertion. The event is demanding on the cardiovascular system. Safe pacing reduces injury risk. Monitors observe for unsafe behavior. 58. What must a monitor do if the course markings are unclear? A. Proceed anyway B. Allow Marines to choose direction C. Clarify and correct markings before starting D. Reduce distance ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Clear markings are essential for fairness. Incorrect markings affect scores. The event must not start until corrected. Accuracy ensures standardization. 59. What is the purpose of rest periods between CFT events? A. Increase scores B. Reduce total test time C. Support recovery and safety D. Eliminate fatigue ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Rest periods allow partial recovery. They reduce injury risk. Fatigue is expected but must be managed. Safety drives rest policies. 60. What should a monitor do if a Marine shows signs of dehydration? A. Ignore the signs B. Encourage continuation C. Stop the event and provide water D. Reduce repetitions ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Dehydration poses serious health risks. The event must be stopped if symptoms appear. Hydration and medical support may be needed. Safety is the priority.
61. What must a monitor ensure about ammunition cans used in the CFT? A. They are clean B. They are the same weight C. They are newly issued D. They are painted ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: All ammunition cans must weigh the same. Standardization ensures fairness. Incorrect weight invalidates results. Monitors must verify equipment. 62. What is the correct monitor response if a Marine pauses during the Ammunition Lift? A. Stop the event B. Disqualify the Marine C. Allow continuation within time limit D. Restart the timer ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Marines may pause as long as time continues. The event is continuous within the time limit. Safety must be maintained. Monitors do not stop the clock. 63. What is the monitor’s responsibility regarding repetition counting? A. Count all attempts B. Count only correct repetitions C. Estimate total effort D. Let the Marine count ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: Only correct repetitions are counted. Incorrect reps must be called out. Accurate counting is critical. This ensures valid scoring. 64. What should a monitor do if a Marine argues during an event? A. Argue back B. Ignore the Marine C. Maintain control and continue monitoring D. Disqualify immediately ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Monitors must remain professional. Arguments should not disrupt the event. Control and focus must be maintained. Issues are addressed after the event if necessary. 65. What is required for a valid grenade throw during Maneuver Under Fire? A. Maximum distance B. One-handed throw C. Landing within the designated area D. Overhand technique ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Grenades must land in the designated area. Technique is not scored. Accuracy matters. Time continues until successful.
71. What must be ensured about the casualty dummy weight? A. It varies by rank B. It is adjustable C. It meets standardized requirements D. It is lighter for smaller Marines ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The dummy weight is standardized. This ensures fairness across all participants. Adjustments are not authorized. Monitors must verify compliance. 72. What is the monitor’s role at the ammunition resupply portion of Maneuver Under Fire? A. Coach lifting technique B. Count repetitions C. Ensure proper movement and safety D. Adjust distances ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: The monitor ensures Marines move correctly and safely. Coaching is not allowed. Proper execution is required. Safety and standards are enforced. 73. What should a monitor do if a Marine deviates from the required route? A. Allow continuation B. Redirect the Marine to the correct route C. Stop the event permanently D. Restart the event ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Marine must follow the designated route. Deviations must be corrected. Time continues during correction. This maintains standardization. 74. What is required before Marines transition between Maneuver Under Fire lanes? A. Rest period B. Score confirmation C. Completion of the previous task D. Hydration break ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Each task must be completed before moving on. Skipping tasks is not allowed. Time continues until completion. This ensures fairness. 75. What is the monitor responsible for regarding lane spacing? A. Increasing difficulty B. Maximizing speed C. Ensuring safe separation between Marines D. Reducing course size ✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Proper spacing prevents collisions and injuries. Safety is the priority. Lane spacing must meet standards. Monitors ensure compliance.
76. What should a monitor do if two Marines collide during an event? A. Ignore the incident B. Stop the event and assess safety C. Deduct points D. Disqualify both Marines ✅ Correct Answer: B Explanation: Collisions require immediate safety assessment. The event may be stopped. Medical evaluation may be necessary. Safety outweighs scoring. 77. Why is consistent enforcement of standards important? A. To increase scores B. To reduce testing time C. To ensure fairness and credibility D. To challenge Marines ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Consistency ensures fairness. It maintains credibility of the CFT. Inconsistent enforcement undermines trust. Standards must be applied equally. 78. What should a monitor do if a Marine attempts to gain an unfair advantage? A. Ignore the behavior B. Encourage competition C. Correct the action and enforce standards D. Adjust scores later ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Unfair advantages must be corrected immediately. Standards must be enforced. This protects integrity of the test. Fairness is essential. 79. What documentation is required after completing the CFT? A. Informal notes B. Verbal confirmation C. Official score records D. Fitness improvement plans ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Official score records must be completed. Documentation ensures accountability. Scores affect evaluations. Accuracy is required. 80. What is the monitor’s final responsibility after all events are complete? A. Coach Marines B. Announce rankings C. Submit accurate documentation D. Destroy score sheets
C. Official score records D. Fitness improvement plans ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Official score records must be completed accurately. These records affect evaluations and readiness. Verbal confirmation is insufficient. Documentation ensures accountability.
86. What is the monitor’s responsibility regarding score accuracy? A. Estimate results B. Adjust scores for fairness C. Ensure accurate and complete recording D. Allow Marines to self-report ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Accurate score recording is critical. Errors can affect careers and evaluations. Monitors must double-check entries. Integrity depends on accuracy. 87. What should a monitor do if a score sheet is damaged or lost? A. Ignore the issue B. Recreate scores from memory C. Report the issue through proper channels D. Adjust scores later ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lost or damaged documentation must be reported. Recreating scores from memory is not authorized. Proper procedures protect integrity. Transparency is required. 88. What is the purpose of post-event supervision? A. Improve scores B. Reduce fatigue C. Ensure Marine recovery and safety D. Speed up testing ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Post-event supervision ensures Marines recover safely. Delayed injuries or heat issues may appear. Monitoring protects health. Safety continues after events end. 89. What should a monitor do if a Marine collapses after completing an event? A. Allow the Marine to rest alone B. Ignore unless requested C. Seek immediate medical assistance D. Record the score first ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Collapse indicates a medical emergency. Immediate assistance is required. Scoring is secondary to safety. Medical personnel must be notified.
90. Why must monitors remain impartial at all times? A. To speed up testing B. To improve morale C. To ensure fairness and objectivity D. To motivate Marines ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Impartiality ensures fairness. Bias undermines credibility. Monitors must treat all Marines equally. Objectivity protects test integrity. 91. What should a monitor do if a Marine requests encouragement during an event? A. Provide motivation B. Offer coaching tips C. Remain neutral and continue monitoring D. Stop the event ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Monitors must remain neutral. Encouragement could provide unfair advantage. Consistency is required. Monitoring continues without interaction. 92. What is the primary purpose of standardized CFT equipment? A. Reduce cost B. Improve scores C. Ensure fairness and consistency D. Simplify logistics ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Standardized equipment ensures equal conditions. Variations could affect results. Consistency protects fairness. Monitors must verify compliance. 93. What should a monitor do if unauthorized equipment is discovered? A. Allow use B. Modify scoring C. Remove and replace with authorized equipment D. Cancel the event ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Unauthorized equipment cannot be used. It must be replaced immediately. This ensures standardization. Safety and fairness depend on approved gear. 94. What is the monitor’s responsibility regarding environmental hazards? A. Ignore minor hazards B. Document after the event C. Identify and mitigate hazards before testing D. Adjust scoring ✅ Correct Answer: C Explanation: Environmental hazards must be addressed before testing. This includes terrain and weather. Hazard mitigation is part of risk management. Safety is the priority.
