Utah PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT Exam, Exams of Technology

The exam tests competency of physician assistants in providing medical care under physician supervision. Areas covered include clinical medicine, diagnostics, pharmacology, patient assessment, and procedural skills. Candidates must demonstrate ability to diagnose illnesses, develop treatment plans, and manage patient care effectively. Passing the exam confirms the PA’s readiness to practice safely and competently within Utah’s healthcare system.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/14/2025

BookVenture
BookVenture 🇮🇳

3.2

(20)

26K documents

1 / 188

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
Utah PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT Exam
Question 1. Which type of cardiomyopathy is primarily characterized by
ventricular dilation and systolic dysfunction?
A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C) Dilated cardiomyopathy
D) Stress cardiomyopathy
Answer: C
Explanation: Dilated cardiomyopathy involves dilation of the ventricles
with impaired systolic function, leading to decreased ejection fraction
and heart failure symptoms.
Question 2. What is the most common conduction disorder presenting
with an atrioventricular block?
A) First-degree AV block
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37
pf38
pf39
pf3a
pf3b
pf3c
pf3d
pf3e
pf3f
pf40
pf41
pf42
pf43
pf44
pf45
pf46
pf47
pf48
pf49
pf4a
pf4b
pf4c
pf4d
pf4e
pf4f
pf50
pf51
pf52
pf53
pf54
pf55
pf56
pf57
pf58
pf59
pf5a
pf5b
pf5c
pf5d
pf5e
pf5f
pf60
pf61
pf62
pf63
pf64

Partial preview of the text

Download Utah PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!

Question 1. Which type of cardiomyopathy is primarily characterized by ventricular dilation and systolic dysfunction? A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B) Restrictive cardiomyopathy C) Dilated cardiomyopathy D) Stress cardiomyopathy Answer: C Explanation: Dilated cardiomyopathy involves dilation of the ventricles with impaired systolic function, leading to decreased ejection fraction and heart failure symptoms. Question 2. What is the most common conduction disorder presenting with an atrioventricular block? A) First-degree AV block

B) Atrial fibrillation C) Ventricular tachycardia D) Torsades de pointes Answer: A Explanation: First-degree AV block is characterized by prolonged PR interval (>200 ms) without missed beats, making it the most common AV conduction disorder. Question 3. Which congenital heart defect involves an abnormal communication between the atria? A) Ventricular septal defect B) Patent foramen ovale C) Tetralogy of Fallot D) Coarctation of the aorta

Question 5. Which of the following is a hypertensive emergency? A) BP of 150/90 mm Hg B) BP of 180/120 mm Hg with signs of end-organ damage C) BP of 130/80 mm Hg D) BP of 140/85 mm Hg with no symptoms Answer: B Explanation: Hypertensive emergency involves significantly elevated BP (>180/120 mm Hg) with acute target organ damage requiring urgent intervention. Question 6. Which form of shock is caused by inadequate cardiac output due to myocardial failure? A) Hypovolemic shock B) Distributive shock

C) Cardiogenic shock D) Obstructive shock Answer: C Explanation: Cardiogenic shock results from the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to decreased perfusion. Question 7. Which condition is characterized by chest pain precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest? A) Unstable angina B) Prinzmetal's angina C) Stable angina D) Myocardial infarction Answer: C

Question 9. Cardiac tamponade primarily results from accumulation of which of the following? A) Blood in the pleural space B) Pus in the pericardial sac C) Fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart D) Air in the pericardial sac Answer: C Explanation: Cardiac tamponade involves fluid (blood, exudate, or other) accumulating in the pericardial space, compressing the heart and impairing diastolic filling. Question 10. Which valvular disorder is most associated with a systolic murmur at the heart apex? A) Aortic stenosis

B) Mitral regurgitation C) Pulmonary stenosis D) Tricuspid stenosis Answer: B Explanation: Mitral regurgitation produces a systolic murmur best heard at the apex, radiating to the axilla. Question 11. Which vascular disease involves inflammation of the large and medium arteries, often affecting the temporal arteries? A) Giant cell arteritis B) Takayasu arteritis C) Polyarteritis nodosa D) Kawasaki disease

Question 13. Which infectious skin condition is caused by the dermatophyte fungi and presents as ring-shaped, scaly patches? A) Candidiasis B) Tinea corporis (ringworm) C) Impetigo D) Cellulitis Answer: B Explanation: Tinea corporis (ringworm) is caused by dermatophyte fungi, characterized by ring-shaped, scaly, erythematous patches. Question 14. Which neoplasm is the most common malignant skin cancer? A) Melanoma

B) Basal cell carcinoma C) Squamous cell carcinoma D) Actinic keratosis Answer: B Explanation: Basal cell carcinoma is the most frequent skin cancer, with slow growth and low metastatic potential. Question 15. Vitiligo is best classified as which type of pigmentary disorder? A) Hyperpigmentation B) Hypopigmentation C) Melanoma D) Depigmentation secondary to inflammation

Question 17. Which endocrine disorder results from deficiency of cortisol, aldosterone, and androgens due to adrenal destruction? A) Cushing syndrome B) Addison disease C) Primary hyperaldosteronism D) Pheochromocytoma Answer: B Explanation: Addison disease is primary adrenal insufficiency caused by destruction of adrenal cortex, leading to hormone deficiency. Question 18. Which form of diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells? A) Type 1 diabetes B) Type 2 diabetes

C) Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) D) Gestational diabetes Answer: A Explanation: Type 1 diabetes involves autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency. Question 19. A patient presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Which thyroid disorder is most likely? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Hypothyroidism C) Thyroiditis D) Goiter Answer: B

Question 21. Which viral infection commonly causes painful vesicular eruptions along a dermatome? A) Herpes simplex virus B) Varicella-zoster virus C) Cytomegalovirus D) Epstein-Barr virus Answer: B Explanation: Varicella-zoster virus causes herpes zoster (shingles), characterized by painful vesicles in a dermatomal distribution. Question 22. Which ear disorder involves inflammation of the external auditory canal? A) Otitis externa B) Otitis media

C) Cholesteatoma D) Tinnitus Answer: A Explanation: Otitis externa, also known as swimmer’s ear, involves inflammation of the external auditory canal. Question 23. Which nasal disorder involves bleeding from the anterior septum? A) Rhinitis B) Sinusitis C) Epistaxis D) Nasal polyps Answer: C

Question 25. Which trauma involves rupture of the globe and is considered an ocular emergency? A) Corneal abrasion B) Globe rupture C) Hyphema D) Chalazion Answer: B Explanation: Globe rupture involves a full-thickness injury to the eyeball and requires urgent ophthalmologic assessment. Question 26. Which neoplasm of the eye is associated with aging and presents as a painless, yellow-white deposits in the macula? A) Conjunctivitis B) Macular degeneration

C) Retinal detachment D) Uveitis Answer: B Explanation: Age-related macular degeneration causes central vision loss due to degeneration of retinal pigment epithelium. Question 27. Which disorder of the ear involves a benign tumor of Schwann cells on the vestibulocochlear nerve? A) Otitis externa B) Acoustic neuroma C) Meniere’s disease D) Labyrinthitis Answer: B