Download WGU D027 Course Material Questions.docx and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
WGU D027 Course Material Questions
Which of the following is not a cellular function? - correct answer Combustion - All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by- products of those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical. What are mitochondria responsible for? - correct answer Energy production - Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP). Which if the following can cause edema? - correct answer Increased lymphatic pressure - Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the vascular results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema). Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? - correct answer Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced - The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends its life cycle and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase. What indicates hypokalemia? - correct answer Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 - Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia.
What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - correct answer Uterine enlargement due to pregnancy - Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus. What regulates the sodium balance? - correct answer Aldosterone - Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion. What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? - correct answer Hypotonic - In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above normal. When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - correct answer Hydrogen - Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42) Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - correct answer pH below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L - The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L. What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - correct answer Translation - Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in this context.
In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - correct answer Bone marrow - The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes, reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages of differentiation and development. Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to recipient? - correct answer Passive acquired immunity - Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are present with or without simulation can arise or be created from oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies). What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - correct answer Increased susceptibility for infection - As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases. What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or soaps also known as? - correct answer Irritant contact dermatitis - Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic, stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of the immune system and vasculature. Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type viruses and a herald patch? - correct answer Pityriasis rosea - Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a herald patch. What is a furuncle? - correct answer An infection of the hair follicle that extends to the surrounding tissue -
Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger processes that require broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though uncomfortable to painful, is a generally localized infection that is self-resolving or that requires local, minor treatment. What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)? - correct answer Actinic keratosis - Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion of SCC What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to? - correct answer Epithelial cells - Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire thickness of the epithelium into the basement membrane. What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - correct answer Absence of normal tissue organization - Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated, connected via a well-organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack those characteristics as well as normal tissue organization. Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer? - correct answer Extreme exercise - Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers, which can be prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent endometrial, breast, and other cancers as well. Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin? - correct answer Wilms tumor - Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main causes of liver cancer are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main cause of cervical cancer is HPV infection. Leukemia is caused by mutations to hematopoietic stem cells. Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast cancer? - correct answer Tamoxifen -
What is the likelihood of incidence of these parent's future children having alpha thalassemia? - correct answer 25% - Alpha thalassemia is a hereditary blood disorder characterized by reduction in hemaglobin production. Each individual inherits two copies of the HBA1 gene and two copies of the HBA2 gene from each parent. If at least one copy of the four is missing, a variation of alpha thalassemia can result. That means that future offspring have a one in four chance of the disease. Which chamber of the heart has the thinnest muscle in the heart? - correct answer Right atrium - The ventricles possess cardiac muscles that are the thickest lined chambers of the heart because their blood volume burden must be pumped to the lungs and the rest of the body, which are areas of high resistance. The atria receive blood from either the rest of the body via the vena cava (right) or lungs (left). They must only pump the volume directly to the ventricles. The coronary arteries encircle the chambers of the heart to supply the nutrients needed to keep the tissue alive. During diastole, which part of the heart is filling with blood? - correct answer Both ventricles - Systole reflects the perfusing pressure of the cardiovascular system where the ventricles eject blood from the heart. Once complete, a resting period—diastole— follows, where blood must refill the ventricles directly from the collection that occurred in the atria. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? - correct answer Pulmonary vein - The superior vena cava carries all the deoxygenated blood from peripheral circulation back to the heart where it enters the right atrium to be pumped into the right ventricle. The right ventricle pumps to the lungs for oxygenation via the pulmonary artery. After pulmonary circulation, the oxygenated blood is carried back to the heart via the pulmonary vein. Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations? - correct answer QRS - The QRS wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) represents the largest spike in electrical activity of the heart, as ventricular muscle cells perform the highest burden of work to pump blood volume out of the heart in that instance.
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm? - correct answer Erodes the vessel wall - Atherosclerosis, also known as the process of "hardening of the arteries" and secondary to plaque formation, weakens the flexibility of a blood vessel wall. Without vascular compliance, the vessel wall becomes more rigid and susceptible to rupture (i.e., an aneurysm). What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis? - correct answer LDLs cause smooth muscle proliferation - Within the arterial wall subintima, oxidized LDLs stimulate macrophage foam cell formation and proinflammatory pathways, which lead to smooth muscle proliferation, fatty streak creation, and eventual fibrous plaque overlays (McCance, p. 699 & 1072). Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? - correct answer Angiotensin II - Angiotensin II leads to myocardial hypertrophy, poor myocardial compliance, and ventricular dilation through stimulating increased cardiac preload and afterload and direct toxicity to myocardial cells. It causes sarcomere death, abnormal collagen matrices, and interstitial fibrosis (McCance, p. 1099). Most cardiovascular developments occur between which weeks of gestation? - correct answer Fourth and seventh weeks - During weeks four to seven, the primitive heart tube progresses through numerous stages of development leading to a developed heart with distinct atria, ventricles, and cardiac vessels. Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) to relieve hypoxic spells? - correct answer Squatting - Spontaneous squatting helps relieve hypercyanotic events in older children through increasing systemic vascular resistance, decreasing venous blood return. This provides a larger amount of oxygenated blood for the body and leads to the temporary reversal of blood through the ventricular septal defect (VSD), which results in increased pulmonary flow. Squatting is rarely seen clinically because most TOF defects are diagnosed and surgically repaired in infancy (McCance, p. 1127). Which condition is consistent with the cardiac defect of transposition of the great vessels? - correct answer The aorta arises from the right ventricle -
Hypothyroidism is a condition in which there is a dysregulation in the thyroid performing its normal endocrine functions. The anterior pituitary senses low circulating T4; this causes a feedback response for additional stimulation resulting in the production of more thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), without the expected effects of raising T4. What diagnosis results if a patient's anterior pituitary produces none of the normal pituitary hormones? - correct answer Panhypopituitarism - In panhypopituitarism, all hormones of the anterior pituitary are deficient: ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of metabolic syndrome? - correct answer Cachexia - Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when three of the five metabolic findings are present: increased waist circumference or central obesity (males > 40 inches, females > 35 inches); triglycerides ≥150 mg/dl; HDL < 40 mg/dl (males) or < 50 mg/dl (females); BP ≥ 130/85 mmHg; or fasting BG ≥ 100 mg/dl (McCance, p. 688). What is occlusion of the capillaries due to diabetes called? - correct answer Microvascular disease - Microvascular disease is primarily due to a long duration (10 or more years) of poorly controlled DM, leading to capillary occlusion and resultant tissue ischemia (retinal, renal, and neurological) (McCance, p. 695). Which of the following is anorexia of aging associated with? - correct answer Poor dentition, decreased gastric emptying, and the effects of medication - Anorexia of aging is associated with decreased orexigenic signals, increased anorexigenic signals, decreased gastric emptying, poor dentition, loneliness, and functional impairments (McCance, p. 721). A BMI greater than what indicates obesity? - correct answer 30 kg/m2 - Underweight is < 18.5 kg/m2. Normal weight is 18.5-24.9 kg/m2. Overweight is 25- 29.9 kg/m2. Obesity is ≥ 30 kg/m2. See "About Adult BMI" for more information. Which term identifies the movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to body organs and tissues? - correct answer Perfusion -
The actual delivery of blood with oxygen and nutrients around the body is perfusion. What is the mechanism of defense for the alveolar macrophages? - correct answer To ingest and remove bacteria from the alveoli by phagocytosis - Pulmonary cilia are responsible for the entrapment and movement of large, foreign particles from the air. The action of coughing propels collected particles while alveolar macrophages work on the microscopic level to eliminate bacteria from lung alveoli. If an individual aspirates, where would a nurse expect abnormal breath sounds? - correct answer Right lung - In the anatomy of the lung, the right bronchus is at more of a vertical angle than the left main stem bronchus. Therefore, when food or other foreign bodies are inhaled or aspirated, the more likely path of travel is down towards the right lung, resulting in abnormal breath sounds in that lobe upon auscultation. Besides a cough, the most common symptom of pulmonary disease is __________. - correct answer dyspnea - Patients with pulmonary pathology may not always have production or sputum or any upper respiratory signs, especially if the etiology is of a noninfectious nature or source. The rate of respiration could be either increased or decreased once again depending on the etiology of the pulmonary issue. However, labored or any irregularity in breathing, dyspnea, will be a common finding. A condition caused by postoperative patients' reluctance to change position or breathe deeply is _____________. - correct answer pulmonary atelectasis - Pulmonary atelectasis is an acute process and the result of the alveoli collapsing in patients postoperatively if the patient does not change position or breathe deeply to keep the delicate lung structures inflated. There is no effect on bones (compression fractures) or function of surfactant. Bronchiectasis is a chronic condition of lung bronchial wall thickening. What is an abnormal permanent enlargement of gas-exchange airways accompanied by destruction of alveolar wall without obvious fibrosis? - correct answer Emphysema - Emphysema is caused by lung cell alveolar apoptosis caused by neutrophil mediated destruction of collagen by elastase and proteases, as well as macrophage action and proinflammatory mediators (McCance, p. 1183).
for bridge, connects the medulla oblongata to thalamus and subsequently other, higher parts of the brain such as the midbrain and forebrain. A failure to recognize the form and nature of objects is __________. - correct answer agnosia - Agnosia is defined as the inability to interpret sensations and thus recognize visualized objects. It is typically a result of brain damage. Amnesia is the loss of memory while aphasia is the loss of speech functions. Locked-in syndrome (LIS), also known as pseudocoma, is a conscious state where a person is aware but cannot move or communicate due to paralysis of nearly all voluntary skeletal muscles. What are transient disorders of awareness that may have an either sudden or gradual onset? - correct answer Acute confusional states - Dementia, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, and Huntington disease are all insidious and progressive neurodegenerative diseases. Acute confusional states are transient and commonly caused by autonomic nervous system hyperactivity or hypoactivity, metabolic disorders, or drugs or toxins directly interfering with synaptic neurotransmission (McCance, p. 518). A traumatic brain injury that results in bleeding between the dura mater and the skull is called ____________. - correct answer an epidural hematoma - The epidural space resides between the dura mater and skull. Subdural hematomas occur in the subdural space found between the dura and arachnoid. Intracerebral hematoma is bleeding within the brain tissue. A concussion is a traumatic brain injury (TBI) marked by diffuse axonal injury due to mechanical stretching and shearing of axonal fibers caused by acceleration and deceleration injuries (e.g., whiplash) (McCance, p. 555-556). A stroke that is caused by fragments that break off from a thrombus in the heart is called _____________. - correct answer an embolic stroke - An embolic stroke occurs when portions of a clot detach, travel to the brain, and cause ischemia. Thrombotic stroke is caused by thrombi that develop in the brain causing ischemia as they grow. Lacunar strokes are caused by lacunar ischemic lesions of deeply penetrating arteries within the brain. Hemodynamic stroke is caused by hypoperfusion of the brain (e.g., cardiac failure, pulmonary embolism, massive bleeding) (McCance, p. 566).
A tear in a tendon is __________. - correct answer a strain - A torn tendon is a strained tendon. Bursitis is inflammation of a bursa. Epicondylitis is inflammation or degeneration of a tendon in the elbow. A torn ligament is a sprain. The condition when blood flows to an affected area is compromised because of increased venous pressure is called what? - correct answer Compartment syndrome - Malignant hyperthermia—which is rare and often fatal—is triggered by inhaled anesthetics or succinylcholine and leads to high body temperature, changes in muscle metabolism and function, rhabdomyolysis, systemic acidosis, cardiac dysfunction. Compartment syndrome refers to the process of decreased blood flow to a specific area due to increased venous pressure in that area. DIC is a clinical syndrome of systemic coagulation and clotting, which often blocks blood flow to organs leading to organ failure. Crush syndrome refers to the effects of rhabdomyolysis on the kidneys. A chronic, systemic inflammatory autoimmune disorder that affects the joints is called what? - correct answer Rheumatoid arthritis - Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic, systemic autoimmune disease that affects tissues, organs, and joints (McCance, p. 1450). A type of dystrophy caused by a deletion of one or more exons of the DMD gene on the X chromosome is what? - correct answer Duchenne muscular dystrophy - Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is an X-linked recessive disorder that affects 1 out of 3500 males and leads to the inability to walk by 10-12 years of age and death due to respiratory and cardiac failure by age 20 (McCance, p. 154). How is Crohn disease (CD) different from ulcerative colitis (UC)? - correct answer CD affects any part of the GI tract and involves skip lesions - While these two diseases are similar, CD impacts all of the GI tract and includes skip lesions. Ulcerative colitis affects the rectum and the sigmoid colon. In addition, CD affects women more often than men, and it increases cancer risk. What is the most common type of peptic ulcer? - correct answer Duodenal ulcer -
What does the treatment of a torsion of the testis require? - correct answer Surgical intervetion - Testicular torsion that is not surgically reversed within six hours leads to testicular damage and tissue necrosis (McCance, p. 843) The incubation period for primary syphilis ranges from how many days? - correct answer 10-90 days - The incubation period of primary syphilis ranges from 10 to 90 days with an average of 12 weeks, following which an eroded-painless chancre emerges. A 64-year-old male truck driver comes in complaining of pain in his lower left calf. He states he drives eight to ten hours per day. Upon exam, swelling and mottled coloring are noted in the patient's calf. A D-dimer test is ordered and comes back positive. Which additional test should be ordered to confirm a diagnosis in this patient? - correct answer An MRI - D-dimer is not a conclusive assessment of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), as it can be elevated for a variety of reasons including stress, recent surgery, inflammation, trauma, liver disease, or malignancy. The test does not identify the location of a clot or the cause. An MRI will provide visualization of the causative agent and the precise location. A 54-year-old man comes into a clinic for a routine visit. His initial BP is 148/92. After a recheck 15 minutes later, his BP is 140/90. He states he suffers from "white coat hypertension." He states he has no history of high blood pressure and no family history of high blood pressure. Which nursing intervention would assist this patient in receiving a clinical diagnosis of hypertension? - correct answer Completing an ambulatory blood pressure assessment - For someone with "white coat hypertension," the best option is to eliminate the situation in which the trigger is present. Assessing blood pressure in a location of comfort like the home environment when no professional is present will enable the ability to determine his blood pressure under routine circumstances. A 58-year-old woman comes in complaining of retrosternal chest pain, worsening with recumbent position. She states she has had a low-grade fever for two days. Upon exam, the patient has a friction rub. An EKG reveals sinus tachycardia with
inflammatory changes. An ultrasound is performed, and she is diagnosed with an acute pericarditis. Which condition would make pericarditis more likely in this patient? - correct answer Lupus - Lupus is an autoimmune disorder that is often responsible for causing an inflammatory response in the pericardial sac. Autoimmune disorders are known to cause chronic pericarditis. A patient begins taking an ACE inhibitor and complains of a dry cough. What does the nurse correctly tell the patient about this symptom? - correct answer This symptom is common. If it does not stop, then your medication can be changed - Coughing is the most common side effect associated with all ACE inhibitors. About 10% of those taking an ACE inhibitor will experience a dry, nonproductive cough that can range from very mild to severe and hacking. Persistent dry cough is the most common reason for discontinuing ACE inhibitors (Burchum & Rosenthal, p. 357). A patient has a chronic congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone to be added to this patient's drug regimen, and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? - correct answer "I need to stop taking my potassium supplement." - Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and therefore the most common side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalemia. Potassium supplements should be discontinued to avoid hyperkalemia (Burchum & Rosenthal, p. 392). A female patient taking an ACE inhibitor learns that she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient? - correct answer The patient should stop taking the medication and contact her provider immediately - ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy because of their teratogenicity and should be avoided. Harm to the developing fetus includes major congenital malformations (e.g., hypotension, skull hypoplasia, pulmonary hypoplasia, renal failure) and death (Burchum & Rosenthal, p. 357). A patient begins taking nifedipine along with metoprolol to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to ______________. - correct answer prevent reflex tachycardia -
with new onset muscle pain while taking a statin drug should undergo careful evaluation. A patient who is taking warfarin has just vomited blood. The nurse notifies the provider, who orders laboratory work revealing a PT of 42 seconds and an INR of 3.5. The nurse will expect to administer __________. - correct answer phytonadione (vitamin K) 1 mg IV over 1 hour - Generally, when INR is in the supratherapeutic range, 1 to 2.5 mg of oral vitamin K is preferred. Because this patient is at risk of vomiting again, the nurse would expect to administer 1-10 mg of vitamin K intravenously over one hour. Subcutaneous administration of vitamin K is no better than a placebo at reducing INR below supratherapeutic levels. The nurse assesses a newly diagnosed patient for short-term complications of diabetes. What does this assessment include? - correct answer Evaluation for hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis - Hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis are short-term complications of diabetes, while peripheral neuropathy, arterial insufficiency, and carotid stenosis are long-term complications of diabetes. A patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 a.m. Blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dL. Which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer? - correct answer Lispro - The patient has preprandial hyperglycemia, which should be treated, and needs an insulin that will quickly lower blood sugar (quick onset) with a short duration of action. NPH has an onset of 60-120 minutes and a duration of 16-24 hours. A 70/ mix has an onset of 30-60 minutes and a duration of 10-16 hours. Lispro has an onset of 15-30 minutes and a duration of 3-6 hours. A nurse provides dietary counseling for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which instruction should be included? - correct answer "You should use a carbohydrate counting approach to maintain glycemic control." - The goal in type 1 diabetes is to maintain glycemic control, which counting carbohydrates will accomplish. Eating any foods that one desires will lead to hyperglycemia. Eating protein to promote fat breakdown as well as restricting calories may lead to ketosis and potential ketoacidosis.
What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding three-month period? - correct answer Glycosylated hemoglobin level - Self-monitoring and the patient's own reporting allow for error and subjectivity in reporting diabetes control. Fasting blood glucose is a snapshot in time and does not provide detail about the past three months. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1c) provides a reliable assessment of average blood glucose over the past three months. Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will the nurse expect to administer this drug? - correct answer Once daily at bedtime
Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a peakless long acting (18-24 hour) insulin that should be administered once daily at bedtime. A patient arrives in the emergency department with a heart rate of 128 beats/minute and a temperature of 105°F. The patient's skin feels hot and moist. The free T4 level is 4 ng/dL. The free T3 level is 685 pg/dL, and the TSH level is 0. microunits/mL. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer ______________. - correct answer propylthiouracil (PTU) - This patient is experiencing thyrotoxic crisis, or thyroid storm. PTU is the preferred medication for treatment of thyroid storm. Methimazole is preferred in reducing hyperthyroidism in stable patients. Iodine-131 is used to treat Graves disease by destroying a portion of the thyroid gland. IV levothyroxine would not be appropriate since TSH is depressed and both free T4 and free T3 are elevated. A nurse obtaining an admission history on an adult patient notes that the patient has a heart rate of 62 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg, and a temperature of 96.2°F. The patient appears pale and complains of always feeling cold and tired. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss tests for which condition? - correct answer Hypothyroidism - The subjective and objective findings suggest possible hypothyroidism in an adult. Cretinism is congenital hypothyroidism and diagnosed at a young age. Graves and Plummer disease cause hyperthyroidism. The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The patient tells the nurse she does not want to take medications while she is pregnant. What will the nurse explain to this patient? - correct answer Neuropsychological deficits in the fetus can occur if the condition is not treated -
